#$\prod_{k=1}^{n-1}(1−e^2kπi/n)=n(-1)^{n-1}

21 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

languid zealot
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$\prod_{k=1}^{n-1}(1-e^{2kπi/n})=n(-1)^{n-1}$

thin wolfBOT
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naokye
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weary sand
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I assume you mean Π(1 - e^(2πik/n), k = 1 to n - 1) = n(-1)^(n - 1)?

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Alright, good.

languid zealot
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i have a proof but

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its got a singularity

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\begin{align*}
x^n-1 &= (x-1)(x-e^{\frac{2\pi}{n}i})(x-e^{\frac{4\pi}{n}i})(x-e^{\frac{6\pi}{n}i})\cdots(x-e^{\frac{(n-1)\pi}{n}i})\
(x-1)(x^{n-1}+x^{n-2}+\cdots+1) &= (x-1)\prod_{\ell=1}^{n-1}(x-e^{\left(\frac{2\ell\pi}{n}\right)i})\
x^{n-1}+x^{n-2}+\cdots+1 &= (-1)^{n-1}\prod_{\ell=1}^{n-1}(e^{\left(\frac{2\ell\pi}{n}\right)i}-x)\
\text{setting $x=1$ will give:} \
n &= (-1)^{n-1}\prod_{\ell=1}^{n-1}(e^{\left(\frac{2\ell\pi}{n}\right)i}-1)\
\prod_{\ell=1}^{n-1}(e^{\left(\frac{2\ell\pi}{n}\right)i}-1) &= n(-1)^{1-n}
\end{align*}

thin wolfBOT
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naokye

languid zealot
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we cancelled out the $x=1$

thin wolfBOT
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naokye

languid zealot
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but we set x=1

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so theres the singularity there

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and i dont think my proof is solid

weary sand
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Both sides are still defined at x = 1, there's no problem.

languid zealot
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my lecturer said theres the singularity so he doesnt accept it tho

weary sand
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Well, you can do it like this:
(x^n - 1)/(x - 1) = Π(x - e^(2πik/n), k = 1 to n - 1)
The find the limit of both sides as x -> 1. Though, I think the given answer is wrong - it should just be n. (-1)^(n - 1) would be present if we had e^(2πik/n) - 1 under the product.

languid zealot
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okie

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thanks guys

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+close