#why do we have to switch sin into cos
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Can’t we just make u equal to sin(x) and use u-substitution?
Well they linearised x—>sin^2(x) to integrate more easily
You can integrate x—>cos(2x) easily
we get different answers tho
What do you mean ?
sin^2 (x)= sin^3(x)/3 if we use U substitution and if we plug in pi and 0 for the intergral we get 0
but if we solve the other problem we end up with pi/2
? Idk where you got that first equality but regardless substitution doesn’t work here because u—>arcsin(u) has values in [-pi/2, pi/2] you can’t use the substitution theorem here
By definition if [a,b] is a closed interval and f a continuous function on that closed interval then, if $\varphi$ is a class C1 bijective function from $[\alpha, \beta]$ such that $\varphi(\alpha)=a$ and $\varphi(\beta)=b$ then $\int_{a}^{b} f(t)dt= \int_{\alpha}^{\beta} \varphi^{‘}(u) f(\varphi(u))du$
Rotor
Here substitution doesn’t work because setting x=arcsin(u), u—>arcsin(u) isn’t even surjective
To [a,b]
That's not remotely true. You forgot to replace dx with du.
Oh thats what i probarly forgot, so I don't have to do what he did and switch sin^2x into (1-cos2x)/2
I mean, you don't have to do that specifically, but u sub still doesn't work. Also I don't know why you have such a problem with this conversion.
whats the problem?
...I don't know. You're the one who has it, you tell me.
Yes just use this
...if you don't have a problem with it, why do you want so badly not to use it?
because I like to keep it simple and automated
to be able to use U-sub constantly is nice
I gave an explanation (albeit not clear) but just know that it doesn’t work here
converting it into cos is not simple, although the process is simple just having that idea isn't so straight foward
Well it’s just simple trig identities
@swift socket I don't understand mathmatical languange to be honest
Would you tell me in leymans term
why it doesnt work?
You're literally saying you don't want to have to think.
Because when you actually remember to do the dx/du substitution, the function you get isn't any easier to integrate than the function you started with.
And also because of what Rotor is saying.
And also because of what Rotor is saying.
I don't understand what Rotor is saying tbh
my mathmatical termnology isn't the best
thats why i asked him to dumb it down
I know you don't, and I can't figure out how to explain it to you, so I'm giving you a second explanation that you can understand so you'll give up on the idea that doesn't work.
Actually, here's a way you might understand. What's sin(0)?
0
What's sin(pi)?
0
So if u = sin(x), you'd be integrating from u = 0 to... u = 0.
and you cant intergrate a point, so therefore we need to switch sin into cos
correct?
Well, the integral of a point is zero, but this integral obviously isn't.
Oh and wouldn't be zero as if we look at the sin graph we can obviously see an area underneath the curve
In fact, it's impossible for any integral of this function to ever be zero as it's always nonnegative.
thanks man!
Do you need the actual conversion explained to you?
Okay, but do you understand how it's derived? Like, the actual sequence of steps to derive it?
Do you know what cos(a+b) is ?
With respect to cos(a), cos(b) sin(a) and sin(b)?
From this you can deduce cos(2x) with respect to cos(x) and sin(x) and using the formula cos^2(x)+sin^2(x)=1 you have the result
Okay, so. You know cos^2(x) + sin^2(x) = 1, right?
yes
Do you know the double angle formula for cosine?
What's another form for it?
cos^2x-sin^2x
Right. So we have: cos^2(x) + sin^2(x) = 1 cos^2(x) - sin^2(x) = cos(2x)We want an identity for sin^2(x), so we subtract the second equation from the first one, and what do we get?
Actually, a simpler way is just to note cos(2x) = 1 - 2sin^2(x) and go from there.
(cos(2x)-1)/2=sin^2(x)
...so then what happens?
+close