#Why?
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I meant that the sum only konverges if |k|<1 but the boundaries of the integral are 0 and 1
So why is it a valid move?
1/(1+k)^2=sum from n=0 to n=inf of (n+1)(-1)^nk^n for |k|<1
Ye but I only wanted to know why I can use the sum even tho it diverges for k=1
$$\frac{1}{(1+k)^2} = \sum _{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n(n+1)k^n $$
aL
It's already simplified
Sry but I still don't get it
Uh
do you wonder about the equality
I wonder why it's a valid move
$$ \int _0^1 \frac{x^{-1/2}\ln x}{(1+x)^2}dx = \sum _{k=0}^\infty (-1)^k (1+k) \int _0^{1} x^{k-1/2}\ln x dx $$
aL
is your question why this equality holds?
No
If the sum diverges at k=1 why can we use it in the integral?
The integral boundaries are k=0 and k=1
x in (0,1)
What u mean?
this means
the variable is in (0,1)
it doesn't matter that you get divergence at end point
if it is undefined for any finite number of points, it makes no difference
I think the question kinda makes sense given that the argument "x in (0, 1)" isn't all that convincing to show that the equality holds... For instance, when considering the geometric series, it would hold a pathological identity, just under the pretense that $x \in (0, 1)$:
$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} (-1)^k \int_{0}^{1} x^k dx = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{dx}{1+x}$$
Rion
well, alleluja for you for understanding what the question even is 
essentially why can we exchange limit and integration?
Why we can do it here
something something uniform convergence
and not in the Grandi series
lemme cook..
Also I did a mistake here, this thing indeed converges
I totally forgot about dividing by 1/k when I integrate
+close
