#The Jacobian's negative, why plug in a positive number?
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Update: I noticed the absolute value signs around the jacobian.
New question: why do we use the absolute value? Is it not possible that a change in (u,v) corresponds to a negative change in (x,y) :,)
I have not done anything like this at all yet (in first year of undergrad) but would the absolute value be used to prevent the flipping of the region of the integral?? just a guess
@vernal sail
Or, rather, to prevent considering signed areas
oh that's a good possibility hmm
The theorem of the variable change indicates that you must use the absolute value of the determinant of the jacobian
while this sounds extremely long winded, it's quite related to how you measure sets with quantities that are always nonnegative
for instance, when you want to measure the area of a rectangle, it does not matter all that much if you count the width from left to right or from right to left
Though I'm not sure how familiar you are with measure theory, so there's probably a limit of how much I can explain without going in-depth
Yeah I don't understand much 😅
Is there a simple run down version? If not it's fine
Let me try to think how to formulate this without overly confusing you
Would exemplifying work fine with you? Just showing that it is the case for very simple cases
@vernal sail
Yeah!
Think of the following
$f$ is differentiable in $\mathbb{R}$ and you wanna look on a certain region (in $\mathbb{R}$ and Riemannian integration, this would correspond to intervals, so say in $(a, b)$)
Rion
Ah, f(x) = x^2 and u = -x would work
$\int_{a}^{b} f'(x) dx = f(b) - f(a)$
Rion
And now, let's suppose that you do a variable change that is a) smooth, b) strictly decreasing
As Rafain suggested, $u = -x$ is perfectly sound
Rion
Method 1: Riemannian integration
$du = -dx$, and new bounds are $-a$ to $-b$
Hence:
Rion
$\int_{a}^{b} f'(x) dx = \int_{-a}^{-b} f'(-u) (-du) = \int_{-b}^{-a} f'(-u) du$
Rion
Notice here that the interval is written in the right order if a < b, since then -b < -a
Method 2: with Lebesgue integration
Here, your variable change is smooth and strictly monotonic $u = \phi(x) = -x$
Rion
So what you can do is to compute the new image, i.e. the new region where you will integrate
$\phi[(a, b)] = (-b, -a)$
Rion
Then, compute the absolute value of the determinant of the jacobian (here it's just 1D)
$\lvert \phi'(x) \rvert = \lvert -1 \rvert = 1$
Rion
So here, what you get in the end is that:
$\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx = \int_{(a, b)} f(x) dx = \int_{(-b, -a)} f(-u) \lvert (\phi^{-1})'(u)\rvert du$
Rion
so in terms of determinant, the $\lvert (\phi^{-1})'(u)\rvert$ thing is nothing but: $\frac{1}{\lvert \phi'(\phi^{-1}(u))\rvert}$
Rion
Which, according to the statement above, is nothing but 1
Another more interesting example would be to try with the variable change u = -2x
Method 1: du = -2dx, dx = (-du/2)
$\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx = \int_{-2a}^{-2b} f \left( -\frac{u}{2}\right) \frac{-du}{2} = \int_{-2b}^{-2a} f \left( -\frac{u}{2}\right) \frac{du}{2}$
Rion
Method 2: $\phi(x) = -2x$, hence $\lvert \phi'(x) \rvert = 2$. On the other hand, the image is $(-2b, -2a)$
Rion
So:
$\int_{(a, b)} f(x)dx = \int_{(-2b, -2a)}\left( -\frac{u}{2}\right) \frac{du}{ \lvert \phi'(\phi^{-1}(u)) \rvert} = \int_{(-2b, -2a)} f\left( -\frac{u}{2}\right) \frac{du}{2}$
Rion
same same. In a sense, the minus sign was already accounted for when computing the new domain of integration
You can try with more elaborate (smooth and bijective) variable changes like $\phi(x) = 4x^3$
Rion
Or, in two dimensions, the infamous: $\phi^{-1}(r, \theta) = (r \cos \theta, r \sin \theta)$
Rion