#Improper integral divergent convergent
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How is the improper integral defined?
It should be the limit (if exists) of some proper definite integral(s). What would that/those definite integral(s) be?
Is it like this?
But I'm currently stuck
Can't you use feynman's trick in this case?
I am pretty sure it is the example of Feynman's trick
Or a similar integral
well for one thing it should integrate to -1/2 e^-x^2
this is not very relevant though
to find those limits, i mean, you are raising e to the power of -infinity
Like this?
I get zero
yeah it is definitely 0 by symmetry
i thought the goal was to prove convergence though
but yeah
Wait that's not how to prove it? How to prove it though?
splitting it up into the 2 improper integrls with the limits is good
i mean my instinct would be to prove its <= e^-|x| in absolute value or something (which it is)
but this is actually fine in this case
So if I got zero, then the integral is convergence?
if you get a finite number it converges
if you split it up, that is
there may be integrals where $\int_{-a}^{a} f(x) dx$ is always $0$, for example, but its wrong to say $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) dx = 0$ because $\int_0^{\infty} f(x) dx$ diverges
cute rizzly bear (nom nom nom)
Owh I see