#Riemann sums

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noble lotus
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Hello, i would need help for understanding something in the Riemann sums subject

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noble lotus
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i have to calculate the limit of this sequence using Riemann sum

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But i don't know what to do... do i want to have a 1/n and k/n as usual ? does the fact that K goes from 1 to n-1 matters a lot ?

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what are the terminals of the integral ?

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this is what i've got

elder blade
noble lotus
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Ah the limit of the sum is equal to the integral ?

elder blade
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Yes.

noble lotus
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But the result is good ? i have no idea what does the n-1 means

elder blade
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We are summing the areas of n rectangles, after all.

noble lotus
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no i know, but in the integral, does it changes anything ?

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from 0 to 1

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and why is it always from 0 to 1, since in the exercise nothing is said about the terminals

elder blade
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No.
The left Riemann sum for ∫(f(x)dx, a, b) with n equal intervals is ((b - a)/n)Σ(f(a + k(b - a)/n), k = 0 to n - 1).
In our case a = 0, b = 1, so the sum becomes (1/n)Σ(f(k/n), k = 0 to n - 1). Note that we skip the term for k = 0 since f(0) = √(0) = 0.

noble lotus
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omg

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wait let me time to understand 😭

elder blade
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It's easier if you try drawing what it looks like.

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Note that the right sum is the same, but k changes from 1 to n.

noble lotus
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Something like this ?

elder blade
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No.

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Take the interval [0, 1], divide it into n intervals.

noble lotus
elder blade
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Yes.

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Now, make a rectangle on each interval, its height being the value of the function on the left side of the interval.

noble lotus
elder blade
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Yes.

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The sum of areas of those rectangles is the left Riemann sum for ∫(f(x)dx, 0, 1).

noble lotus
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Oh okayyy

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and is it like the same for every exercises ?

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from 0 to 1

elder blade
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Well, it could also be the right Riemann sum.

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And, while I haven't seen exercises utilizing it, we aren't required to take intervals of equal length in a Riemann sum.

noble lotus
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i got this, and yesterday my teacher told me about the 1/n not being correct since the last term is 2n

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so in this case it would still be between 0 and 1, but we want a 1/2n ?

elder blade
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Well, the integral will be from 0 to 2, then. Just be careful with the constant.

noble lotus
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AH

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It only changes the last terminal 😭 😭 😭

elder blade
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We have:
k/(n^2 + k^2) = (1/n)((k/n)/(1 + (k/n)^2)) = 2(1/(2n))((k/n)/(1 + (k/n)^2))
So, this is a Riemann sum for ∫(f(x)dx, 0, 2), where f(x) = 2x/(1 + x^2).