#something i came across while working with summations

1 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

void kelp
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i noticed that the term after the leading term of the summation of x^n always has a coefficient of ±1/2(depending on if you sum to x or x-1), is there any simple reason for this?

also because every function can be written as a taylor series, does this mean summation of any function f(x) can be approximated as F(x)±f(x)/2 + c (where F(x) is the anti derivative of f(x))

faint joltBOT
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swift dagger
timid hill
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Note that your generalization doesn't work.

swift dagger
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Yeah, it's just plain untrue that "every function can be written as a Taylor series".

void kelp
swift dagger
heavy boneBOT
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Techie Literate

void kelp
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yup

swift dagger
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Wait, but then what are you talking about coefficients? There aren't any coefficients, the coefficients are all 1.

void kelp
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wait no

timid hill
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Hold on, let me show Faulhaber's formula.

swift dagger
timid hill
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Here you go.
Here B(j) are the Bernoulli numbers. The minus subscript denotes one of the conventions.

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For the first two terms we always have a simple representation:
(1/(p + 1))(-1)^0 C(p + 1, 0) B(0) n^(p + 1) = n^(p + 1)/(p + 1)
(1/(p + 1))(-1)^1 C(p + 1, 1) B(1) n^p = n^p/2

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After that it's not as easy.

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The first two highest terms are always just n^(p + 1)/(p + 1) + n^p/2, though.

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By the way, note that B(j) for odd j more than 1 is always 0.

void kelp
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looks like ill be having a long night ahead of me

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y'all tysm for replying

timid hill
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You're welcome!

void kelp
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and working with my sloppy notations

timid hill
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It's quite an interesting topic, I agree.