#Why $0 * \infty$ is undefined?
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Why is $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ undefined¿
Akash!
well it doesn't have to be undefined (like how in number space, inf/inf=1) but it is normally undefined because most systems treat infinity not as a number but as a idea of unending (even tho I personally don't like such systems)
i thought of a better one
Akash!
Well it’s undefined because there are many types that of infinities take for example ln(x)/x for x approaching infinity it converges to 0 because x—>x has a much faster growth rate than x—>ln(x) but now take e^x/x this diverges to infinity as x approaches infinity because it’s once again a question of growth rate, you can’t define the undefinable. Infinity is a concept not a number
Wdym inf/inf =1? It’s undefined
Infinity is a way to study the behavior of certain mathematical objects as they get arbitrarily big or small you can’t treat it like a number
define infty first then I'll tell you
i honestly don't know
$(x=+\infty) \iff \forall v\in \bR, v<+\infty$
Coffey, Slavic Taiga
it's a convenient way to say bigger or smaller(in the case of -infty) than any real number
you can easily exchange reals with naturals
or rationals or irrationals
won't matter much suite yourself
Well okey, but what is different infinities
so in that sense, both functions :
f(x)=1/x
g(x)=1/x^2
tend to infty as x->0
but f(x)/g(x) -> 0
makes sense
that's because some infinities are bigger than others
for example
the usuall infinity we deal with is the number of natural numbers
also called countable infinity
how is it countable?
if there is a bijection from X to N then we say that X is countably infinite
so there's a countable number of naturals
integers
rationals
cool
algebraic numbers (solution to some polynomial equation with rational coefficients)
but
so it still feels like infinity but it's actually countable
No
It's infinitie.
we call this kind of infiniteness countably infinite
as we can count them
like number the elements in the set
what i mean is
there's a first natural number of we order it in some way
there's a first rational number
I actually have a doubt, a irrational number can be described by an infinite number of terms then why is it still an algebraic function and not a transcendental function?
and so on so forth but there is not a first real number
wdym by it can be described by an infinite number of terms
algebraic function?
sorry an irrational
transcendental function??
Yes, an irrational function is an algebraic function but it can be described by an infinite number of terms
well because there are more real numbers in any interval of R than there are naturals
so isn't it a transcendental function?
wdym by function
A function is a relation between it's domain and the range
i think I misunderstood the concept
Man, aren't irrational functions used to describe irrational numbers right?
bye
i wanna study for exam
+close
Yes that’s what I said
