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change what?
my proof
first of all if you work in R^3 as the main metric space, then you might want to assume A complement is not open instead because a set is closed iff its complement is open
Suppose E is not closed. Then E complement is not open.
Let x be a point in E complement. Prove that it has an open neighbourhood entirely in E complement. Hence E complement is open; contradiction arrived.
because being open doesn't imply it's not closed!
what definition of open or closed do you have?
typically closed means complement is open
are you allowed to use sequences?
$$ E\ni (x_1^n,x_2^n,x_3^n) \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{}(x,y,z) \in \mathbb R^3 $$
aL
Wouldn't that be a direct proof
" i got the feedback, "you need to suppose "E is not closed", not "E complement is not closed""
I take it this means IF you want to prove by contradiction, then so and so
but I didn't read it was mandatory to prove it by contradiction
otherwise you'd have to do epsilon stuff.
Suppose E is not closed. Hence its complement is not open. Hence, there exists a point in R^3 \ E, that is not an interior point. So any epsilon ball around it would have to intersect with E
following up what aL said, it's provable than $(x_n, y_n, z_n) \to (x, y, z)$ if a only if $x_n\to x$, $y_n\to y$ and $z_n \to z$ under the euclidean metric As $\qty{x_n} \subseteq \mathbb{R}{\geq 0}$ which is closed we have $x\in \mathbb{R}$ and the same follows for the rest and we get $(x, y, z) \in \mathbb{R}^3{\text{non negative coordinates}}$
Coffey
(just elaborating for the guy he might find it interesting)
and this logic can be used to prove that the finite Cartesian product of closed sets is closed too
Now if it becomes infinite that's where things become funny
I would assume sequences are allowed because at this stage we have covered sequence based topology
but who knows..
sometimes people don't like the usage of sequences
high chance of them not being allowed in proofs
ok but then
if i would do this, how do i prove that is has an open neighbourhood entirely in E complement
Since x is in E complement, at least one of its coordinates is negative; call it x_0
Then the open ball of radius |x_0|/2 = -x_0/2 lies entirely in E complement
so if i would write : Suppose E is not closed. Then E complement is not open.
Let x be a point in E complement. Since x is in E complement, at least one of its coordinates is negative; call it x_0
Then the open ball of radius |x_0|/2 = -x_0/2 lies entirely in E complement. Hence E complement is open; contradiction arrived
that would be correct
yes, because x is arbitrary
but at this point it's silly to formulate it as a proof by contradiction
you showed the complement is open, hence by definition E is closed
@mental chasm
so then how would you formulate this assignment?
To show E is closed it suffices to show its complement is open.Let x be a point in E complement. Since x is ..
qed
thank you
+close