#Need help breaking down this question

43 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

lost mantle
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I don't understand this question

round jacinthBOT
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spiral junco
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If $q$ is a prime dividing $1+p_1p_2...p_n$, then $q\neq p_i$ for all $1\leq i\leq n$

pure rootBOT
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Omegabet_

spiral junco
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@lost mantle

lost mantle
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ok

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so how would i go about proving this?

spiral junco
lost mantle
lost mantle
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so i should show if q is prime diving 1 +p1..pn is q = pi

spiral junco
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what

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BWOC, suppose $p_i\mid (1+p_1p_2...p_n)$

pure rootBOT
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Omegabet_

spiral junco
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reach a contradiction.

lost mantle
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i suck at prrofs

spiral junco
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ok

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welcome to learning proof writing then

lost mantle
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so if pi|(1+p1..pn) then (1+p1...pn) = pi * some number?

spiral junco
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some integer, yes

lost mantle
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kinda stuck from here

spiral junco
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hint: Use 1.1

lost mantle
spiral junco
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that's by definition of divisibility..

lost mantle
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so in order for (1+p1...pn) = q q = kpi?

spiral junco
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?????

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what

lost mantle
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im trying

spiral junco
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nowhere did we say q=1+p_1...p_n

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again, we're proving $p_i\nmid p_1...p_n+1$ for all $i$

pure rootBOT
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Omegabet_

spiral junco
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BWOC assume $p_i\mid p_1...p_n+1$, then there exists $k\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $p_1...p_n+1=kp_i$

lost mantle
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ok

spiral junco
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now use 1.1

pure rootBOT
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Omegabet_

lost mantle
spiral junco
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that is true, yes

lost mantle
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am i on the right track?

spiral junco
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idk, keep going and see

lost mantle
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ok