#Need help breaking down this question
43 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
- Wait patiently for a helper to come along.
- Once someone helps you, say thank you and close the thread with:
+close
- Feel free to nominate the person for helper of the week in #helper-nominations
- Do not ping the mods, unless someone is breaking the rules.
- If you're happy with the help you got here, and the server overall, you can contribute financially as well:
If $q$ is a prime dividing $1+p_1p_2...p_n$, then $q\neq p_i$ for all $1\leq i\leq n$
Omegabet_
@lost mantle
show none of the p_i's divide it.
would it be a fair assumption to say that i could prove this by contradiction ?
yes
so i should show if q is prime diving 1 +p1..pn is q = pi
???
what
BWOC, suppose $p_i\mid (1+p_1p_2...p_n)$
Omegabet_
reach a contradiction.
i suck at prrofs
some integer, yes
kinda stuck from here
hint: Use 1.1
(1 + p1.. pn) = kpi?
that's by definition of divisibility..
so in order for (1+p1...pn) = q q = kpi?
im trying
nowhere did we say q=1+p_1...p_n
again, we're proving $p_i\nmid p_1...p_n+1$ for all $i$
Omegabet_
BWOC assume $p_i\mid p_1...p_n+1$, then there exists $k\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $p_1...p_n+1=kp_i$
ok
now use 1.1
Omegabet_
(p1...pn) = kpi -1
that is true, yes
am i on the right track?
idk, keep going and see
ok
