#Countable Sets
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The set should be contable because is the intersection of 2 countable sets but idk how to prove it
why'd that be??!
intersections don't conserve any form of uncountablity
they do conserve countablity
for example : $[0,1]\cap [1,2] = \qty{1}$
Coffey
thats factual but what about the bijection
it'll suffice to frame a bijection $(0,1] \to [0,1]$ as the other part can just be $[-1,0)\to [-1,0)$
Coffey
i have an idea
yeah that (0,1] -> [0,1] thing is technical
involves picking sequences in a clever way
it's a standard exercise when dealing with cardinality stuff, I have it written somewhere
okay so I think we can do it in this way :
pick out a sequences from (0,1] :
1/1, 1/2, 1/3,...... 1/n,....
and map it to
0, 1/1, 1/2, 1/3,.... 1/n, ....
and everything else to itself
shifted the sequence that it
yup, that'll do it
this sort of "removing finite elements" works for any pairs of infinite sets
but it definitely has to involve some infinite process
because for them to be even considered infinite they must have a subset such that $A \subset B$ and $\abs{A} =\abs{B}$
Coffey
yeah we just picked out a sequence and shifted it
Oh, I've heard of this before. I think the following works:
f(0) = 1
f(2^(-n)) = 2^(-n - 1), n ≥ 0
Otherwise f(x) = x. This should be a bijection between [-1, 1] and [-1, 0)⋃(0, 1].
The variant I've heard of is a bijection between [0, 1] and (0, 1), I think.
nvm I was thinking that finite sets where sets that didn't went to + or - infinite
can you explain where does f(2^n)) = 2(-n.1), n>= 0 came from?
@edgy crescent check this too :3