#Linear Motion
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I got undefined
Really?
yes
d = total distance
v = speed for 2nd half
time for 1st half = (d/2)/40 = d/80
time for 2nd half = (d/2)/v = d/2v
total distance/total time = average speed
d/((d/80)+(d/2v)) = 80
d+(40d/v) = d
40d/v = 0
d/v = 0
d = vร0
v = d/0 = undefined
if half of the car trip means half the time, then this has a reasonable answer
the velocities simply average with the weights being the proportions of time
and in this case the weights are equal
so 1/2 v1 + 1/2 v2 = average v
average speed$(\overline{v})=\frac{{v_1}+{v_2}}{2}$
$\therefore \frac{40+v_2}{2}=80$
$\therefore 40+v_2=160$
$\therefore v_2=120$
๐๐ฆ๐ฉ๐๐ช
This is a different case. It not moving with a constant acceleration.
What does the 2v mean?
no average speed can't be calculated that way
It can but this case should not be considered.
v is the speed for the 2nd half
2v is from (d/2)/v = d/2v
But if you look careful, it should rather be (d/2)/v=dv/2
Yeah.
multiply by 2/2
Just look closely.
that's (d/2)/(1/v)
Yeah
how so?
Yeah I told him
of course not, look
both numerator are equal
but the denominator aren't
so they aren't equal
it's like 1/2 and 1/3
that's like saying 2=1/2
Then you can ask someone.
it can, it's just if you interpret "second half" as second half of the time
hm yea you're right
Actually it is infinity. @here
wlog assume the first part to be 20km
he then has used up 30 minutes getting to the half way mark
the whole trip is then 40km and he wants to use a total of 30minutes
so... infinity !?!?!?
i tried 40km and other km values yea for whatever value you put there it is infinity
Which concludes?
Yeah, that's correct! It's a trick question. Here's why.
v = (x1 + x2)/(t1 + t2) = (x1 + x2)/(x1/v1 + x2/v2)
Now, suppose x1 = x2 = x/2.
v = 2/(1/v1 + 1/v2)
And this harmonic mean is the key. Let v = 2v1. Then:
2v1 = 2/(1/v1 + 1/v2)
1/v1 = 1/v1 + 1/v2
And now it's easy to see why only v2 = โ works. And if we take v > 2v1, then even v2 = โ won't be enough.
It's a trick question.
OK