#Derivative (Implicit)
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@supple oyster since you've reached $\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{\sec^2(x+y)}{\tan(x+y)} \cdot \left(1+\frac{dy}{dx}\right)$ the only thing you need is to multiply by $e^y$ both sides to get $e^y \cdot \frac{dy}{dx} = e^y \cdot \frac{\sec^2(x+y)}{\tan(x+y)} \cdot \left(1+\frac{dy}{dx}\right)$. To prove this is the same formula they gave you then demostrate that $e^y \cdot \left(\frac{\sec^2(x+y)}{\tan(x+y)}\right) = \left(1 + e^{2y} \right)$
Ambilogy
That will show that their formula is obtained from yours, which is obtained by implicit dif.
Thank you @devout siren
@supple oyster has given 1 rep to @devout siren
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