My proof for: No element in a ring is simultanously inversable and nilpotent:
Let x be an inversable and nilpotent element. It's pretty obvious that if x is inversable, so is x^n inversable for any n integer (because the inverse is x^(-n)), but there exists a m such that x^m = 0
This implies that 0 is inversable but that's a contradiction.
#In a ring, every element either is inversable or it's nilpotent
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usually the inversion isn't applicable to 0
it isn't in fields and such
atleast
how is this related to the question
basically you proved that every element except the nilpotent element is inversible.
hence proven :3
no, he proved that the nilpotent elements are non-inversable
but not that the non-inversable elements are nilpotent, or that the non-nilpotent elements are inversable
oh i forgot you gotta prove everytime once in algebra
what
i don't know all i knew is that coffey wasn't right, sorry 😔
Bruh
What if I prove that no element is not nipotent nor non-inversable
Would that be sufficient with my other proof for this?
yes that would work
in Z, 2 is not invertible or nilpotent
Yes also in the matrice ring not all non invertible matrices are nilpotent
For example the matrice J with only 1 at every coordinate
It’s not invertible (every columns is linearly dépend of each other)
And J^m=n^m * J with n the dimension of the matrice J
For all m
So never 0
Oh I misread the question I thought it was in a ring of an element is not invertible than it’s nilpotent
My bad
But wouldn't that be what the question say actually?
I was able to prove that no element is simultanously invertible and nilpotent
So that leaves only that elements are either
- Neither
- Nilpotent but not invertable
- Invertable but no nilpotent
And I got to prove that no elements are neither
But idk how
In a ring, each element is either a unit or a zero divisor
...
Nilpotent and zero divisor are different concepts
huh
The question is false, take 2 in Z/Z6
Yeah
I'm getting silly
K
So how do I prove this anyway?
Anything productive to say?
Prove what?
Prove it yourself

But anyway yeah, if x is unital, then it can't be a 0 divisor is a fact of all rings
2 in Z/Z6 isn't a unit since gcd(2,6) != 1 (or do all the multiplications)
And 2^n is either 2 or 4 in Z/6Z, so it's not nilpotent
I will prove that if an element is inversable then it isn't a 0 divisor
Let x != 0
Then there exists a y such that xy = yx = 1
We have to prove that !(Exists y !=0(xy = 0) ) = For every y = 0(xy != 0)
But this conclusion is false
Or am I missing something here?
Think I did the negation statement wrong
Let x be a unit and BWOC suppose its a 0 divisor.
Then there exists non-0 y such that xy=0
Left multiply by x^-1 and you get y=0 contradiction
So the only thing you can multiply a unit by to get 0 is 0
In a finite ring
2 is neither a unit nor a zero divisor in Z.
What proof?
The one that someone can't be both a unit and zero divisor?
Because that's not relevant to the fact that there are things that are neither units nor zero divisors
Ok
But what about finite rings, is this true? "Every element is either a 0 divisor or is inversable?"
