I just wonder if my reasoing is correct. The problem is the following: "If A ⊆ B, then what is A ⋂ B, A \ B, and A ⋃ B?"
The way I understood is that since A is a subset of B, then every element x in A also exists in B. Since
A ⋂ B = {x : x ∈ A ∧ x ∈ B},
then it follows that A ⋂ B = A, because when you take the intersection of A and B, you are essentially finding the set of elements that exist in both A and B.
I applied the same reasoning to A \ B. Since
A \ B = {x : x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B}
then it follows that A \ B = {}. In other words, the relative complement of B in A must not contain any elements. Since all elements x that exist in A also exist in B and x ∉ B, it cannot be the case that the relative complement B in A is an non-empty set.
Same thing with A ⋃ B. Since the definition of the union of A and B is as follows
A ⋃ B = {x : x ∈ A ∨ x ∈ B},
then the union is essentially the same as B because it already contains all elements in A and, possibly, additional elements.
I apologise for any grammar mistakes since English isn't my mother tounge, which is why I wonder if my reasoning is correct.