#trigno
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so you are calculating
$\tan^{-1}\qty(\prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{1-\tan^2(2^{-n})})$
cute rizzly bear (won't eat you)
yes
did u get it?
mm no
i found a slight simplification
nothing that solves it yet
my simplification is to write tan in terms of sine and cosine, simplify, and use trig identity
and then you can simplify over the whole product
yeah i did that too
(i also used a calculator so i know the answer)
i just don't know how to justify it
ok i think i know
howw
i gtg sorry
okay : (
well im back
did you figure it out
no can u tell plz
i will give you this
$\frac{1}{1 - \tan^2(2^{-n})} = \frac{\cos^2(2^{-n})}{\cos(2*2^{-n})}$
cute rizzly bear (won't eat you)
so then you write out a few terms of the infinite product
you can cancel some things out
$\frac{1}{\cos\left(1\right)}\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}\cos\left(2^{-n}\right)$
(cos1/2 cos1/4 cos1/8..... ) /cos1
cute rizzly bear (won't eat you)
o ok you already had that
recall that sin(2x) = 2sin(x)cos(x)
im not 100% sure on the logic here bear with me
sin(2x) = 4sin(x/2)cos(x/2)cos(x)
= 8sin(x/4)cos(x/4)cos(x/2)cos(x)
this is awfully reminiscent of the infinite product
what next? i tried a lot but ntg works.