#Complex Analysis
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@fleet finch what does the notation for unbolded D mean here? The notation is this book is very foreign to me. Regardless of choice of y i don't see how implicit function theorem is being used either. The book seems to define it for "functions regular of order 1" and that is when the partials are equal to 0. But I've never heard of the theorem stated this way
Ok nvm ignore that above msg
@wise sinew It is a germ of the Discriminant, then unbolded because he fixed the Delta as a domain and is choosing a "represtative" of the germ
it is Gunning Rossi
Ohhhhhh okay
Yea i figured that lol not many SCV books in general just checked a few
Okay i think i just spent an hour understanding the first half and now I'm stuck at the same place you are not sure why g(y)=f(y)
Is there some corollary you've missed from before?
could it just be
because P(f(y)) is 0 and then when he uses implicti function theorem
he wants the level curve set of that
something like that?
no, i don't think it
Is it some sort of analogue to analytic continuation in SCV or am I being dumb? The way that line is worded reminds me of that
i suspect it is just cluncky notation and yes some analytic continuation, he is kinda of saying that they coincide in one point and solve the same equation
something like that
I'm sure here's some corrolary before hand if he just stated that f=g so casually
I'm thinking its probably something like that
Cuz P(f) restricted to W coincides with P(g)
Maybe just be hopeful and assume its something like that for now but you should definitely ask your prof for a clarification
ohhhhh
Wait y is the point at which the representative of the discriminant is non zero so would that mean P^-1 would be well defined no
Ok i think I'm gonna take a break from this but i feel like this kinda makes sense
ok thanks for your time
Does this work or am I thinking about it wrong?
i don't see it but i will think about it, might just be me 🙂
discriminant different than 0 means it has distinct roots
i feel like i have to show that g and f are the same root
they are root because g satisfies the implict function theorem (?)
but why g(y)=f(y)?
Yes yes
it's a mess for me honestly I think I will just ask
Ok but how is that even possible to show
g and f are both roots of the representative P which has distinct roots so hmm yes i think so
Ok I'm convinced it is analytic continuation im just unfamiliar with the scv vase
I think i might have to look up about the germ of the discriminant to get an idea why y is so important. i feel like maybe i am making some mistake about how it behaves.
I'm sorry I haven't really been able to help maybe there's someone else here who might be more experienced
@regal spade it's this problem
It's mainly germs tho
Just guessing it's somewhat related enough that you can make some sense of it
okay might be dumb...
might it be that there exist only one continuos solution of implicit theorem, now we know that this only one is ALSO holo. Now he calls this g and notices that f is continuos and holds the same requirements, hence f is holo.
@wise sinew
Hmm, I just glanced at it and looked over the convo. It's not clear to me either. Might have to open a copy of Gunning Rossi myself to see their formulation of implicit function theorem.
I feel like this would only work if P(x)=0 iff x=f no? I think that property y has must be important in some way
Oh dear well thanks for having a look anyway
I'll try going through this again today @fleet finch but if you do find a solution could u send it here I wanna know now too
unfortunately I think this awful answer is the right one ahah
Did your prof say something?
he agreed with it
Well shit ig that's an unclimatic ending haha