#Probability question (Answer is 0.7%)
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Probability question (Answer is 0.7%)
Have you heard of Bayes's Theorem?
Nope.
Okay, let's track what probabilities we're actually given, and what precisely they're probabilities of. So what's the first figure we're given?
Well, we know that at least 1 out of every 14 man has prostate cancer above the age of 50.
The man we're given is over 50 so we don't have to involve any chance regarding his age.
Right, so let's just say P(cancer) = 1/14.
Next, we know that there's a 7% chance that a person with prostate cancer will not have a high PSA.
This must be the case as well.
P(~PSA|cancer) = 0.07
?
What's wrong?
~ = "not", | = "given"
Ahh
So that means, probability of not having PSA among people who absolutely have cancer?
Yeah.
Which would be, 7% x 1/14 yeah?
...no.
There's another number given.
It's good practice to always assume all information given in the question is relevant.
Ironic, because in the other sections of the test the opposite is advised (and generally holds true)
But I'll keep it in mind, it will not be disregarded until I prove it is worthless.
What do we do with it, how does it relate?
Fair enough.
- 1/14 chance for a man over 50 to have prostate cancer
- 7% chance for a man with cancer to not have high psa
- 75% chance for a man with high psa to not have cancer
Our man has normal PSA, and we want to know how likely he is to have prostate cancer.
P(cancer) = 1/14
P(~PSA|cancer) = 0.07
P(~cancer|PSA) = 0.75```
What we want is P(cancer|~PSA)
So here's a formula for conditional probability: P(A|B) = P(A&B)/P(B)
So the chance of cancer, given that he doesn't have psa, is = P(has cancer AND low psa) / P(low psa)?
Right.
P(cancer and psa) is, then 7% x 1/14 ?
Not necessarily.
That only works if they're independent, which the fact that this is used as a test implies they're not, otherwise it'd be kind of useless.
So here's where we might invoke Bayes's Theorem. We still have a few problems if we do, but it might make more sense. I'll actually derive it for you.
That should help you remember it. It helps me.
So to start with, if $P(A|B) = \frac{P(A&B)}{P(B)}$, then logically $P(A&B) = P(A|B)P(B)$, right?
Yeah, that checks out
techieliterate
But A and B are just placeholders, so as long as we replace all the As with the same thing and all the Bs with the same thing, the formula holds. Let's replace all the As with Bs and all the Bs with As: $P(B&A) = P(B|A)P(A)$. But of course, $P(B&A) = P(A&B)$.
techieliterate
Also checks out
Therefore, $P(A|B) = \frac{P(B|A)P(A)}{P(B)}$.
techieliterate
Now, you can check it against your intuition that $P(B) = P(A&B) + P(~A&B)$, right?
techieliterate
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Nope, brainfarted there
Okay, P(A&B) is the probability that A happens and B happens, right?
Sorry, I'm very out of practice with math and I've been trying my best, but relearning is hard
Yeah!
Both happen
P(~A&B) is correspondingly the probability that A does not happen and B happens.
Whenever B happens, A either happens or doesn't happen, and it can't happen and not happen, therefore every instance of B is accounted for in exactly one of P(A&B) or P(~A&B).
This diagram might help:
Are you following?
Well, we just got done making a substitution for $P(A&B)$, so we can use that here: $P(B) = P(A&B)+P(~A&B) = P(B|A)P(A) + P(B|~A)P(~A)$
techieliterate
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Thus, Bayes's Theorem:
$P(A|B) = \frac{P(B|A)P(A)}{P(B|A)P(A) + P(B|~A)P(~A)}$
techieliterate
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$P(A|B) = \frac{P(B|A)P(A)}{P(B|A)P(A) + P(B|~A)P(~A)}$
techieliterate
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There!
And with this theorem, we do...
Well, we want P(cancer|~PSA), so... plugging in...
$\frac{P(~PSA|Cancer)P(Cancer)}{P(~PSA|Cancer)P(Cancer) + P(~PSA|~Cancer)P(~Cancer)}$
fuelweaver
Forgot the backslashes on the "not"s.
Hmm, didn't read 'em
$\frac{P(~{PSA}|Cancer)P(Cancer)}{P(~{PSA}|Cancer)P(Cancer)+P(~{PSA}|~{Cancer})P(~{Cancer})}$
techieliterate
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...dammit.
P(cancer) = 1/14
P(~PSA|cancer) = 0.07
P(~cancer|PSA) = 0.75
(0.07 x 1/14) / (0.07 x 1/14) + whuh
There's gotta be a simpler way to do this than the theorem
Not really. Though we don't exactly have everything we need for the theorem yet.
I found a different solution online but I have no idea about its train of thought.
Approximately 1 in 14 men over the age of 50 has prostate cancer. The level of ‘prostate specific antigen’ (PSA) is used as a preliminary screening test for prostate cancer. 7% of men with prostate cancer do not have a high level of PSA. These results are known as ‘false negatives’. 75% of those men with a high level of PSA do not have cancer....
Okay, look. There's a simpler form of Bayes's Theorem, but it's in odds, not probabilities, so we'd have to convert back once we were done.
Hmm, how do we get the right side of the bottom?
That's exactly the problem. I've got it now, but it's taken me a good deal of finagling.
Or rather, I've obviated my need for it by finding something else.
Maybe we should try to figure out the "simple" solution I linked?
Actually, that's the wrong solution according to my math.
Gah. Nothing makes sense anymore.
Look, we know that P(cancer|~PSA) = P(cancer & ~PSA)/P(~PSA), right?
Yeah!
So far, what we have is P(cancer), P(~PSA|cancer), and P(~cancer|PSA), right?
yeah.
So we just need to use what we have to get what we want.
We know P(~PSA|cancer) * P(cancer) = P(cancer & ~PSA), so we have that down.
What we're lacking is P(~PSA)
Right.
Which is just 1 - P(PSA) yeah?
...yes, but we don't have P(PSA) either, so that doesn't strictly help.
So we're trying to get P(PSA)
Right.
7% of 1/14 people have low PSA, 93% OF 1/14 People have high psa.
the 93% of 1/14 makes up the 25% of men with high PSA
...no?
Why not?
...because the 93% of the 1/14 have cancer. The 25% don't.
The 75% don't
...oh.
Right.
Hang on, I think I see where you're going. Let me just write it down in notation to check it.
So the amount of people with high PSA would be 4/14 * 93%
around 26%
but something tells me we're not supposed to get numbers like these on a no-calculator test
It's actually 2/7 * 93%.
Literally the exact same thing
So what do we do now?
Well, we have P(PSA), so we subtract it from 1.
P(cancer|~PSA) = P(cancer & ~PSA)/P(~PSA) = (0.07/14)/(5.14/7)
...well, no?
from that, we get 0.007 or 0.7%
Well. We round to it. The fact that we don't get an exact answer makes the official explanation seem even hackier.
This was the first exam with like 5 participants so I guess no one objected to how wacky this was for a logical reasoning question
I will probably never see it again
but it's good to learn just in case
You actually taught me a few things, namely that trick where P(A) = P(A|B)*P(B)/P(B|A). That was cool.