#Simple Statistics Question
95 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
so i think
What did you get for (a)? Just to make sure you understood it correctly.
for a my working was ((5!)/(1!*4!)) x 0.0668 x (1-0.0668)^4 = 0.253 then I checked online and saw that someone had worked it out without the number of combinations and got 0.0507 (5 times smaller)
so I'm not really too sure
I checked this video and it told me to do the first method https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8Vqa3irjRgs
This video explains the Binomial Distribution Formula and how to apply it as part of studying probability and statistics. For more information on binomial distribution visit https://revisionmaths.com/advanced-level-maths-revision/statistics/binomial-distribution
For more maths resources visit https://revisionmaths.com
I haven't done this topic in months
so I completely forgot it
Combinations won't work for (a), since not only it needs to be just once, but on the FIRST day. So, the probability would be p(1 - p)^4, where p is the probability of water being hot on a selected day.
what about b
We do the following:
P(more than on 1 day) = 1 - P(on 0 or 1 day) = 1 - P(on 0 days) - P(on 1 day)
And here you use the formulas with combinations, since the positions of the days don't matter, only the amount.
this is confusing
Well, it's just the application of two formulas:
- P(A) = 1 - P(¬A)
- P(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B), as long as A and B are disjoint.
whats confusing me is the day numbers
The day numbers don't matter in (b), only the amount of days does.
so $1-(1-0.0668)-(0.0507)$?
Yooda
No.
P(on 0 days) = (1 - p)^5
P(on 1 day) = 5p(1 - p)^4
So:
P(more than on 1 day) = 1 - (1 - p)^5 - 5p(1 - p)^4 = 1 - (1 + 4p)(1 - p)^4
Now just substitute p = 0.0668.
You just need some practice.
I've been slacking off revision for a week
I have exams in 3 now
I need to start
for this question can I use X~B(20, 0.45)?
and I'm also lost again
First, use Bin(20, 0.45) to find the probability that a store has 12 or more wins. Take that as p.
Then, use Bin(8, p) to find the probabilities that at least 2 stores are "winners".
CDF.
Binomial is discrete, so its PDF isn't too useful. PMF is, but here we are looking at cumulatove probabilities.
ok I got an extremely small answer
x10^-7 small
What I did was (X = 12 N = 20 P = 0.45) on binomial CD gave me 0.9419 then I did it again with (X = 2 N = 8 P = 0.9419) which gave me 9.66x10^-7
nevermind
This is the method we learnt
hence why I didn't recognise it
ok I understand this
but problem
I forgot how to do variables.
I have a
That's not correct.
P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X ≤ 1), not just P(X ≤ 1).
erm
its what Physics and Maths Tutor is Telling people so I'm not sure
oh
yeah no they missed the one off
they did it in the working
b.
P(Y ≥ 22) = P(4X + 1 ≥ 22)
After that, do some algebraic manipulation to isolate X.
c.
Y + X = 4X + 1 + X = 5X + 1
The rest is similar to the approach in (b).
ah P(X=> 21/4) then
Yes. Now you just need to calculate it.
ok thanks
You're welcome!
ok now I have that I'm not sure what I would put in X~B(N, p)
well exactly what I need to work out
they are all bigger than 21/4
No. Only 6 is.
No. The distribution here isn't binomial.
It's just the distribution desribed by the given table.
so 3/21
or 1/7
as 6 is the only value over 5.25
well 18/21
wait
since its smaller values less than 5.25 it would be 1 - 18/21 (3, 4 and 5) = 3/21
my brain is frying a bit
Not sure what you mean.
P(Y ≥ 22) = P(4X + 1 ≥ 22) = P(X ≥ 21/4) = P(X = 6) = k/21 (with whatever k you found).
Yes.
I recommend taking a break if you're tired. Have some more practice later.
ok finally D
Chance of Landing on 5 = 7/21
N = 40, X > 10 P = 7/21
p(X > 10) = 1 - p(X <= 10) right
wait
Yes.
is it not p(X > 10) = p(X >= 11)
Same thing for this distribution, doesn't matter.