#Prove This Statement (Algebra)
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Doesnt need it
Combine the fractions, solve for $a^{m-n}$, and substitute the solution into the original statement to prove equality
Ephesians 2:8-9
$\frac{2}{1+a^{m-n}}=1$
Ephesians 2:8-9
And so on
But you're not really proving anything are you?
Thats what I was thinking
Assuming the statement is true, we can show it leads to a true conclusion
We do get that a^(m-n) is 1
And then 1/2 + 1/2 = 1
That's what I would do with the given information
But you're being asked to prove the statement is true
Which it is for a specific value of a^(m-n)
This question is not worded properly anyway
I mean if you have other ideas feel free to write them
From what is given, this is all I can do and assume needs to be done
@pseudo vigil prove that god exists
nope
the problem is i have to prove that the statement is right
not this
i have done a more complex version of it, but somehow i cant do this one
@pseudo vigil the question isn't well defined. Wth is α and what are m, n?.
idk
the question never said anything about it
i worked on a similiar but much more complex problem, and i cant seem to do this one
@pseudo vigil bruh...
Obviously the equation doesn't hold for any a, n, m.
It is not a identity like sin²θ+cos²θ=1 which holds for all θ in R.
its algebra
middle school
i suddenly blanked
@pseudo vigil Pick α=0, m=2, n=1
You will get 2=1 which is incorrect
Maybe it is from an exam and all you remember is that expression and not the whole question.
So since the equation doesn't hold for any a, n, m . They must have some of other definition than just any three random numbers.