#Feynman's integration trick
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This integral is equal to π/4 but I'm getting -3π/4
Limits wrong by the end, integral you want is $\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{(t+1)^2+1} , dt$
that's all I'm giving you because your pencil's tone hurts my eyes
agex
Then on LHS, I(t) as t goes to infinity diverges to infinity due to $x^t$ term
∫ i dx
Sorry about that
what are you talking about, that integral is π/4
you want that integral by the end
But then how do you get the original integral I?
your I'(t) by the 5th till last line is wrong
Can you please tell exactly what went wrong in it cause I am not getting?
try again with this:
$I(t)=\int_0^1 \frac{x^{it}-x^{-i}}{2i\ln{x}} , dx$
agex
using the complex sine definition earlier on than you did
almost the same overall method
I(1)=I
I got the answer using $I(t) = \int_0^1 \frac{sin(tlnx)}{lnx}, dx$
∫ i dx
But wanted to why was this method producing wrong answer
something happened just before here, but it's almost 5am so icba to actually pinpoint it
$I'(t)=\int_0^1 \sin(\ln x)x^t, dx$ then if you just let everything be and remember to resubstitute later:
$\frac{x^{t+1}((t+1)\sin(\ln x)-\cos(\ln x))}{t^2+2t+2}$
agex
agex
as our I'(t)
then we integrate relative to t -arctan(t+1)
and resubstitute our 0
where'd that pesky negative come from

don't care, area is positive
π/4
How can you do that? 
Ignore the - and forget the constant
didn't forget the constant, also you can make it positive if you plot a couple points
the graph is almost strictly positive on 0,1
I made the constant 0 because that's what it started as
before I took the derivative
agex's integration trick:
measure theory
But then take lim t-> -infinity I(t) with original definition is 0, but this new definition with arctan gives π/2
So constant must be -π/2 how 0?
that's not what the constant was before you took the derivative
there was no constant before you took the derivative
Does that matter?
yes
because that's what the constant is
you get the constant from indefinite integration because it's reversing differentiation
which removes constants
if you didn't have any constants in the first place and you know that, then you have a condition
But then what about two different values of I(t) at -infinity?
so you can make C=0
my version doesn't need limits 😏
I am not getting this 😭
I didn't change the bounds because I resubbed everything back in
simplifies with redundancy
Sorry but I still don't get it
Not hyperbolic sub
why are you doing Feynman's method and complex substitution then 
I liked Feynman's method and was able to evaluate many cool integrals with it until I happened to step on this integral
lmao
I haven't done any official course in calculus I just learnt from internet
if you really want to redo your method and check each step then check everything up until the 5-6th till last line
I did check many times but don't know what went wrong