#Inverse Trigonometry question

1 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

cedar tulip
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I get how dx/dy = 2 · sec^2x · tanx

but I don't understand how sec^2y = 1/(1+y^2). Can't use a triangle because its in terms of y and from my understanding, 1/(1+y^2) is dx/dy tan^-1y???

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can someone help explain steps 3 to 4

worn flare
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In 3rd step we take square on both sides then take Differentiation with respect to dy

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Then use chain rule for tan^2 = 2x 1/1+y^2 X tany

cedar tulip
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how did you get 1/1+y^2 using chain rule?

worn flare
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1/1+y^2 is derivative of tan^-1

cedar tulip
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yes so where did tan^-1 come from

mighty heron
cedar tulip
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so the solution is incorrect?

mighty heron
cedar tulip
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can it be simplified further?

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here is the rest of the solution

mighty heron
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or you can leave it as it is

cedar tulip
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because the answer cannot be left in terms of y

mighty heron
cedar tulip
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right

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do i leave sec^2(tan^-1(sqrt(x)) as it is or is there a way to simplify it further

cedar tulip
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ok thank you

mighty heron
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urwelcome

cedar tulip
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hey i did some messing around and it turns out that sec^2(tan^-1(x)) = 1 + x^2

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but i don't understand why

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hang on i worked it out

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sec^2(tan^-1(x)) can be rewritten as 1 + tan^2(tan^-1(x)) = 1 + x^2

latent blaze
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based on the unit circle

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but you most likely don't need to know this until you learn trig substitution

latent blaze
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depends what modules you do

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might be in calc bc

cedar tulip
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that looks difficult so i'm thankful I don't have to learn it