#PLS HELP FAST
1 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
Idk the proof, look up “e^pii” on youtube
oh
It's like e^(π.i)+1 =0
Because e^(ix) = cos(x) + i sin(x). Euler's formula. Ergo, when x = pi, e^(i pi) = cos(pi) + i sin(pi) = -1 + 0i = -1.
...what do you mean "no matter what"?
There's no "what" to matter, it's a constant.
answers are there
so its -1
right
provided that x is x
...no.
Where is x in e^(i pi)?
...are you telling me that you're working with Euler's identity and you don't even know how variables work???
yeah...
i might've
uh
but
whats the answer
i just wanna know
cuz someone said
theres a numerical answer
to it
A) We can’t give direct answers
B) We’ve already told you that you can’t get help on an exam, stop asking
What's the question?