#Definition of Definite Integral
40 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
t is a dummy variable for integration: it disappears after you insert the limits. You can replace it by any letter, as long it is not the one used in limits.
but what does is represent? what exactly is a dummy variable
Well, what happens when you find the integral of f(t)? You find the antiderivative F(t).
Then, using the fundamental theorem of calculus, you substitute the limits. Thus, the integral is equal to F(x) - F(a).
So, the variable t is just for convenience of finding the antiderivative.
This is a thing we do all the time in calculus; there are a lot of functions that are defined as the integral from some constant to x of some function.
ln is one, in fact. ln(x) := int(1, x) 1/t dt.
how is it more convenient to find the antiderivative when the variable is t
It's not about convenience.
we're not all that far into ftc but i just want to know what exactly t represents
It's just that one of your bounds of integration is x, so your variable of integration can't be x.
So you don't confuse it with x that is present in the limits.
If the limits were just constants or variables other than x, then you could've written x.
yeah i mean but graphically speaking, what does f(t)dt represent
...okay, switch the x and the t.
If that's what's confusing you, switch the x and the t. Look at it as int(a, t) f(x) dx.
Bearing in mind that a is constant and t is variable.
Same as usual: a rectangle with height f(t) and width dt.
would it be correct to assume that f(t) is like the curve that is being measured?
f(t) is the function we're integrating.
so f(t) could be like t^2 or something, and all x is doing is just setting the upper limit?
Yes.
so what's the deal with this then? if you differentiate A(x), shouldn't you just get f(t)?
No.
By the fundamental theorem of calculus. the integral is F(x) - F(a). So:
A'(x) = (F(x) - F(a)) = F'(x) = f(x)
...no, because you're not differentiating A(t), you're differentiating A(x).
And you're differentiating with respect to x.
Well, they are not equal, but they represent the same thing.
If x = t.
so f(t) is just the function being integrated, A(x) is the area below it, and f(x) is the derivative of that area function which happens to represent the same thing as f(t)
Yes.
Well. A(x) - A(a) is the area below it from a to x.
But a and therefore A(a) is a constant.
No, I believe that just A(x) is the area, considering the definition of A(x) given.
A(x) = F(x) - F(a) for any antiderivative F(x), though.
which is equal to the int(a, x) f(t)dt?
A(x)? Yes.