#How to solve this?
8 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
this can be restated at the limit from X to +infinity of (1+1/x)^x
which is one of the definitions for e
because the individual limits for x going to zero of x and x going to infinity of 1/x are both 0, and the limits of x going to infinity of X and x going to +0 of 1/x are both infinity
@plain nova
It actually doesn't even need to be 0+. The limit as x approaches 0 from either side is e.
let $n = 1/x$ \
then the limit becomes $\lim_{n \to \infty} (1+1/n)^n = e$