I'm trying to prove a≥a from Analysis I. Is this proof correct / how could it be written better?
Proof.
Let a∈N. We will show a≥a using induction. In the base case, a=0. By def 2.2.1, a = 0 + a. By the commutative property, a = a + 0. By def 2.2.11, a≥a. This proves the base case.
We will now prove the inductive case by showing a++≥a++. By the same logic as the base case, (a++) = 0 + (a++) = (a++) + 0. Because (a++) = (a++) + 0, By def 2.2.11, a++≥a++. This proves the inductive case.