#Elementary antiderivative

41 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

lusty lodge
#

What does "It does not have an elementary antiderivative" mean? It's a rough translation from Norwegian.

wet mountain
#

"Antiderivative" just means "integral", since derivatives and integrals are opposites.
If it does not have an elementary antiderivative, it means that the indefinite integral is not an elementary function. According to Wikipedia:

an elementary function is a function of a single variable (typically real or complex) that is defined as taking sums, products, and compositions of finitely many polynomial, rational, trigonometric, hyperbolic, and exponential functions, including possibly their inverse functions (e.g., arcsin, log, or x^(1/n)).
In layman's terms (not quite accurate, but easier to understand), it means that you have to define a new function to express the indefinite integral.

lament pecan
#

Integrals and antiderivatives are not the same tho

wet mountain
lament pecan
#

Antiderivatives are quite literally anti-derivatives, integrals (at least in calculus II) are defined by the area under a curve... it's just a formality tho

lusty lodge
#

So elementary function/antiderivative refers to the indefinite/entire "figure", in contrary to the expression above (which is sufficient enough for the definite part we were looking at)?

lament pecan
#

Having an elementary anti-derivative just means u can "write it" down

lusty lodge
#

As I interpreted it, that "written" expression would span the entire graph, no?

lament pecan
#

Something like sin(x)/x doesn't have an elementary anti-derivative bcs u can't write down an expression for it

#

But the function exists

lusty lodge
#

Ohh, I think I understand. Was trying to get a geometric understanding of it, which proved to be abstract/difficult(?)

lament pecan
#

Nah, the idea is purely algebraic

lusty lodge
#

Yeah, saw that. Thanks for the clearance! 🙂

lament pecan
#

Np

lusty lodge
#

Also, may I ask another question regarding double integrals here?

lament pecan
#

Sure

lusty lodge
#

I'm going to find the volume of the body between {z=1-y^2 & z=x^2)

lament pecan
#

Ok...

#

What seems to be the problem?

lusty lodge
#

Kinda uncertain what my approach should be, heh. Cause I reckon I'm supposed to derive a function and a domain to integrate for?

lament pecan
#

Like, just calculate one of the volumes and subtract the other one

lusty lodge
#

But that's the part I'm uncertain about. I tried to make expressions for the domain, defining basically a half-circle for both x & y

#

Oh, do it in 2 rounds? I thought I was supposed to do it between them. But I guess it would be the same, just thought they wanted it to be done that way

#

Not sure though

lament pecan
#

First things first

#

Graph them

#

See where they intersect

lusty lodge
#

Yeah, did that.

#

Also here’s my attempt of domain finding, where I set the equality of the z-definitions

lament pecan
#

Ok...

lusty lodge
#

(under the line)

lament pecan
#

Now you just do the volumes separately in respect with the places they intersect

#

And subtract

lusty lodge
#

Okay. Now my first intuition is to use the x & y-domains respectively for the integrals, from -sqrt(1-x^2) to +sqrt(1-x^2)

#

and same for y

#

But that will leave me with expressions with unknowns, no?

lament pecan
#

I guess this is similar to the 1d case

#

But I'm not sure

#

I'm not sure if I can help you with that rn

#

Still need to finish analysis III