#general discussion
1 messages · Page 8 of 1
ohai, can i ask a math question here? not related to school or university. Just need a little knowledge
go ahead
I want to "translate" this expression into mathematical (graduated long time ago and forgot everything):
It's like sum sequence / limit which contains itself. At infinity it should be 0.2, but idk how to write it right
isnt that just 1/6 + 1/36 + 1/216 + 1/1296...
finite sum of geometric series
multiplying it by 6 we gain a +1 and lose a +1/1296 meaning 6x = x + 1 - 1/6^4 meaning x = (1-1/6^4)/5
and you can see that indeed limits to 1/5
i'm ashamed lol. Thought its smth more difficult
Hi there people, looking for someone who's good at combining and calculating stuff like this:
quantity: 18.000 - Boar man, 85% fire damage | 95% ice damage
quantity: 16.000 - Liodile, 110% fire damage | 105% ice damage
quantity: 13.000 - Carnivostrich, 110% fire damage | 110% ice damage
In this game, I can deal either ICE or FIRE damage.
I'm wondering which damage to use for maximum damage over time. For example the Boar Man takes 15% reduced fire damage, and 5% reduced ice damage.
Boar Man, Liodile and Carnivostrich all take damage at the same time by AOE dmg, (area of effect).
Have fun, I will follow this thread to see what people come up with. I'm too bad to calculate the actual values with quantity vs % dmg etc 😄
Ik it’s a little late but this book is incredible, totally recommend for those who havnt read it!
Was reading this paper (http://dfns.dyalog.com/n_ratrep.htm) cause it was linked in a stack exchange article, and it said Euler claimed:
Where:
S(x) = ... + x∧(3) + x∧(2) + x∧(1) + x∧(0) + x∧(-1) + x∧(-2) + x∧(-3) + ...
Then:
S(x) = 0
I can't find anything about this online, does anyone have a link to any resource about this? Or is this not real?
Dyalog APL
Nice to hear you enjoyed it too! It's a really good book that introduces a lot on interesting concepts and ideas
I've been really interested in all of the number classifications and want to make a program using them. Does anyone know a list of them all? I know there are probably thousands of them but if anyone has a general list of some of them it would be really helpful. And by number classifications, I mean motzkin numbers, bell numbers, tribonacci numbers. Like all of those obscure number classifications.
oeis
can someone help
ive tried u sub. I briefly considered completing the square before realising the 9/2y would be interfering with that
I tried thinking of a possible trig sub
none that I can think of
hiiiiii
its easy
then how
Hmmm
hmmm
it just converted it into a rational function,
factored the bottom, and did partial fractions
and integrated each
Most cool
such a goofy integral
0
nope!
bro didn't know Poland is FULL of poles
idiot!!
@hollow ice you seeing this??
No, you're an idiot either way
jokes are meant to be funny, you're the only exception
bros mad that he missed it
you literally failed miserably
idiot!
not a funny joke anyway Mr German
I'm not allowed to tell you to follow in the late Fuhrer's footsteps
Bro really is going on a rampage
what function are we integrating bruh
Poland isn’t conservative
pll is the last step of solving a rubik cube, where last layer must be solved and all peices have same orientation
it has 21 cases
but if i do math i get 4!^2/2/4=72
(4!^2 for 4! for the corners and 4! for the edges divide 2 for odd number of edge or corner swap to exlude impossible and finally divide 4 so color doesnt matter)
i know it is because some are mirrors of each other or they are different ways of being the same
how can this be expressed as formula to get 21 instead (using logic)
integrating POLAND over IT'S BORDER
Oh.
Wouldn’t that be the land area of Poland
Or total area ig
Now find the volume when revolving it around the equator
💀
no!
contour integral
wow 1 hour exactly
Is it bad that idk what a contour integral is
*3607.236 seconds
Still really close to 1 hour
Hi maths ppl
Hey
Anyone know how I can show that n!/(n^n) is decreasing aka a_(n+1) < a_n ?
Inductive proof perhaps
Is there any easier method?
Inductive proof would be easiest ngl
do u need to show that its decreasing as n increases?
2/n^2 going to zero automatically implies that as n gets larger 2/n^2 gets smaller (decreases), and since n!/n^n is smaller, it also goes to zero and n goes to infinity, therefore a_n+1 < a_n??
So (n+1)!/((n+1)^(n+1)) < (n+1)! / ((n+1) • n^n) = n! / (n^n
That’s what I would do
Basically show that (n+1)!/((n+1)^(n+1)) < n!/n^n
In latex form it would be:
$\frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}} < \frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)•n^n = \frac{n!}{n^n}$
r•eⁱˣ = r•cos(x) + ri•sin(x)
$\frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}} < \frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)•n^n = \frac{n!}{n^n}$
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<inserted text>
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I suspect you have forgotten a `}', causing me
to read past where you wanted me to stop.
I'll try to recover; but if the error is serious,
you'd better type `E' or `X' now and fix your file.```
L
L
Dam
Can I show u lot my maths pls
Probably not impressive bc im only 17 and likely really bad compared to most of u here
Go ahead
Some implicit differentiation i did today
Nice
very cool
hmm how will this help me?
Doing an easy trig integral by substitution for the challenge
Yea and dappy showed that a(n+1) < a(n)
Which is the same as it decrasing
Do u mind explaining how its being showed that a(n+1) < a(n)
Read dappy’s proof
its my cursor
oh lol
surely just say:
if n∈z, n⊆(n+1) => n+1>n ∴a(n+1)>a(n), ∀n∈z
sorry if my notation is bad
Again I'm not some maths god
How did u get from the first line to the second?
all im really doing is canceling the n+1 and then since n+1 is greater than n, (n+1)^n is greater than n^n, and when the denominator is bigger its smaller
Surely this holds up
Oh nvm I read wrong
1 (2) ..... (n+1) is the same as (n+1)! right?
Yes that’s the definition of factorial
and it's also true from definition of sequence
n! = n•(n-1)•(n-2)…•3•2•1
Which is true from definition of definition
definition of true
So then dappy has shown that if a_n = n!/(n^n), then a_ (n+1) < a_n for all natrual numbers or only n >= 1?
yeah definitely just divide both sides by n! then simplification happens
true = !false
no induction necessary
For all natural numbers n
As it works regardless of what we put for n
Now prove for real numbers
0^0 is not defined
so
Yeah I was trying to show by induction rn but it's so pain
only n >= 1
that's 1?
normally assigned the value 1
In algebra are we allowed to just take the facotrial of both sides of an equation?
yeah but why would you do that
well i'm tryna show n!/(n^n) decreases by induction
yes
I found out that n!=n(n-1)! In my head when I was like 12 and thought I was smart
Same
amazing
u guys r legends
I also found out the (x+y)^2 formula and thought I was smart
what happens in ur username when x=π lol
-r=......
Divide by r :)
Yes
I realised
Who doesn’t love Euler
realized cos(pi) = -1 no way
Ain’t no way bruv
impossible
I thought it was 12
Sqrt(e^iπ)=i
So rewrite e^(iπ) but every time i appears rewrite it as sqrt(e^iπ)
How do you write that
cos(pi) = -1/12
It just goes on forever
yea that
ty for the help guys!
nah should be e^(π/2e^(π/2e^(π/2...))))
clearly remains i as you go off to infinity
real
Do you know what fractals are?
No yes
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Do you now? > yes no
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Do you now? .....
there's a meme for that but I lost it :(
im god
search the internet, folks
Lol
n!/(n^n) > 0 for n >=1 right?
ye ty
This is quite simple
Let’s say we compute the first 5 terms of the infinite series
Then the error to the real value of the infinite series is determined by all of the series members n>5
Notice that our series is a part of n! / n^n multiplied by sin something
To achieve the greatest error, sin would have to be constantly minus 1 or 1
More formally we can create the upper bound n!/n^n for the absolut error
But we know series n! / n^n = e (no we don’t know this tf am I smoking, n is not x u moron)
What
Omfg
I read the whole problem wrong lmao

where did you get sin
n!/n^n = e
Anyone know how I can solve for k here?
is that for sum of an alternating seried
ye
also, the way to solve for it is with a calculator
though you could also just see this is true for k = 100 or something
hmm
@ashen agate @dusty swallow
Let there be a polynomial $p_c(z)$ of degree greater than $1$.\
Then, for the sequence of polynomials defined by $z_0(c)=0$, and $z_{n+1}(c)=p_c(z_n(c))$, there exists a polynomial $h_{n,k}(c)$ such that $z_{nk}(c)=h_{n,k}(c)\cdot p_c(z_n(c))+z_n(c)$
yoavmal
I think this is true, I am not 100% confident in this
The proof is using two inductions one after another
Same I used for the specific case with z²+c
I'll be trying to do that in the soon time
Formally
$p_c(z)=\sum_{n=0}^da_n(c)z^n$ where $a_n(c)$ is a polynomial of $c$
yoavmal
yoavmal
so $a_0(c)$ should be a polynomial of degree $1$ in terms of $c$, at least
yoavmal
next up, $z_2=p_c(a_0(c))$
yoavmal
@dusty swallow
do you agree
dappy
This means $z_n(x)=x^{(2^n)}$
dappy
Ur statement would say there exists a polynomial $h_{n,k}$ such that
dappy
$x^{2^{kn}} = h_{n,k} \cdot x^{2^{n+1}} + x^{2^n}$
dappy
@open whale
I added further specifications down the line
Like
a₀ must be nonezero
To be precise, it must be a polynomial of c with degree 1 or more
Back to the proof
So we have that
$z_2(c)=p_c(z_1(c))=\sum_{n=0}^da_n(c)(z_1(c))^n=a_0(c)+a_1(c)z_1(c)+\sum_{n=2}^da_n(c)(z_1(c))^n$
yoavmal
What do I do with that thing lmao
Lets see what did I do with the specific proof
Lets show to with z₁
$z_1(c)=p_c(0)=a_0$
yoavmal
Yoav lol
Bro casually died
And now I will prove:
Is it mathematical incorrect to have two equal signs on the same line? Some of my teachers say it is, but I can't find any source anywhere except for a few quora answers
Do u mean something like 3*2+3=6+3=9?
Yes
Well if u have something like x^2 =3x u can’t directly say =x=3 that is obv false
But the equation from before “implies” the second one
That’s what the arrows mean
Nah there u can just aswell use an equal sign
Actually the way it’s written right there is prob on a formal level even wrong
Better to use an equal sign in that case
i had to go lmao
uhh
so we have the base case
now we want the induction
lets assume
$z_{n+k}(c)=h\cdot p_c(z_n(c))+z_k(c)$
yoavmal
then
you know what
i'm removing the Cs
it's going to make it a little too messy now and so more prone to errors
$z_{n+k}=h\cdot p(z_n)+z_k$
yoavmal
yoavmal
so uhh
$=\sum_{m=0}^da_m(h\cdot p(z_n)+z_k)^m$
now, what i want to do, is somehow extract z(k+1) from this
which is p(z(k))
wait this is wrong
this is better
so we can break it down to the binomial
but i don't want to bother
uhh
actually i will, why not
oh also another issue
i used n as an index too
yoavmal
now we can do binomial
i suppose over j now?
$=\sum_{m=0}^da_m\sum_{j=0}^m\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^jz_k^{m-j}$
yoavmal
now we want to extract the z(k+1) polynomial
so if j=0 we get z^m
that's not what we want
oh
it is
because m moves between 0 and d
so that'd be our polynomial
$=\sum_{m=0}^d\qty(a_mz_k^m+a_m\sum_{j=1}^m\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^jz_k^{m-j})$
yoavmal
$=\sum_{m=0}^da_mz_k^m+\sum_{m=0}^da_m\sum_{j=1}^m\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^jz_k^{m-j}$
yoavmal
$=p(z_k)+\sum_{m=0}^da_m\sum_{j=1}^m\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^jz_k^{m-j}$
yoavmal
$=p(z_k)+\sum_{m=0}^d\qty(a_m(hp(z_n))^m+a_m\sum_{j=1}^{m-1}\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^jz_k^{m-j})$
yoavmal
$=p(z_k)+\sum_{m=0}^da_m(hp(z_n))^m+\sum_{m=0}^da_m\sum_{j=1}^{m-1}\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^jz_k^{m-j}$
yoavmal
$=p(z_k)+p(hp(z_n))+\sum_{m=0}^da_m\sum_{j=1}^{m-1}\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^jz_k^{m-j}$
yoavmal
Bro is having a stroke and thought I wouldn’t notice
i don't need that part
$=p(z_k)+z_n\sum_{m=0}^da_m\sum_{j=1}^m\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^{j-1}z_k^{m-j}$
yoavmal
i may have underestimated this
sorry
not underestimated
uhh
what's the word
miscalculated
it is possible i have phrased the original thing wrong
and it's supposed to be
$z_{n+k}=p(hz_n)+z_k$
yoavmal
and it's possible i phrased the entire thing wrong
yeah, definitely
$=p(z_k)+\sum_{m=0}^da_m\sum_{j=1}^m\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^jz_k^{m-j}$
yoavmal
so this is definitely correct
$=z_{k+1}+\sum_{m=0}^da_m\sum_{j=1}^m\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^jz_k^{m-j}$
yoavmal
now the rest needs to be written in some form of zn
i mean, i can definitely factor the zn out of this
but this isn't what i want
oh wait i'm stupid
it's right there
$=z_{k+1}+p(z_n)\sum_{m=0}^da_m\sum_{j=1}^m\binom{m}{j}(hp(z_n))^{j-1}z_k^{m-j}$
here we go
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
and $z_{0+1}=0p(z_0)+z_1$
yoavmal
and alternatively
actually this is not general enough
the proof for induction assumes more
here we go
proof
$z_0=0$
yoavmal
$z_{n+0}=1\cdot z_n+z_0$
yoavmal
this is the base for the induction
is it valid?
@dusty swallow
yeah i don't think i need a second check for that, it's correct
and for extra measure we also can prove
you know what
nvm
i'll work on it a little more
i want to prove first that for every n,k
there exists a polynomial h so that
$z_{n+k}=h\cdot p(z_n)+z_k$
yoavmal
now, what seems odd is this doesn't hold precisely for k=0
nor for k=1
uhh
$z_{n+0}=0p(z_0)+z_n$
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
this willl take some while
the crackpot team moves letters around until they find the right combination
i assume you meant z0(c) = c cuz otherwise it's constants in the whole sequence, and that this works for all posints n, k > 1?
z0=0
z1=c if p(z)=z²+c
We assume a0 in our polynomial is of degree 1 in terms of c
Yes
that is still constant
maybe im misunderstanding
i guess it's p(c,z) then the sequence is 0, p(0,c), p(p(0,c),c)...
and h is supposed to work for all values of c
c is normally a constant so 😅
confused
We treat c as the variable
Well, we play on that iterativeness
The polynomial we talk on is a polynomial of z
With coefficients which are polynomials of c
Such that the degree of a0 is at least 1 in terms of c
,w solve 4x² - 1 = 0
heyyy guys
For me it’s how it feels objective, black/white and logical, unlike something like English or politics which is very gray and has a lot up for debate
racist much
The people that genuinely think math is racist for some reason:
that's why it's fun
Math is objective
Meanwhile Axiom of Choice, Continuum hypothesis:
feels objective
mfs before nothing makes sense
Well, close enough anyway
math is cool because this statement is fallacious
Proof by contradiction
Alex sucks ass
No contradiction found
QED
Most valid mathematical proof Ong
that is a contradiction by definition
Now this is something I could get by (/j ?)
watching walking dead
My favorite mathematical proof
You remind me of an article about racism in math that was actually well written and thought provoking
Send link to article plz
The point they are making is valid but it’s not racism in math, it’s racism in our culture regarding math
Yeah
Yeah true, but for me, it’s the discussion and collaboration that makes math fun for me
Is it weird😂
Like would you rather do math yourself or discuss and collaborate with others
Hmm I haven’t tried collaborative math before
, whether 0 is natural:
(joke!!)
:O you found much better one
i dont think this was the first time this was ever posed
it's weird that they even had to name it after anyone
humans have been looking for shorter road journeys forever
surely
wait, the shortest cycle?
Shortest cycle might have been relatively uncommon
maybe'
imo 0 should be a natural number in set theory and computer science but not a natural number in analysis
does analysis touch N
i need to look into that
Imho It should be natural number in algebra as well
it appears that peano arithmetic explicitly makes 0 natural
(Maybe was a hot take)
whaaaaaaaa
In set theory, 0 is an ordinal but it is not infinite so it should be a natural number
This is why there is also a difference between omega and N
wdym
omega =/= N?
Like 0 in omega is the empty set, but in N is the set of all rational numbers (in the version that is not a subset of R) less than 0
Nothing is strange about this though.
Assuming the real numbers are constructed through the dedekind cuts
It is tricky to extend a set satisfying good properties, you better make new one.
You can replace the corresponding elements (e.g. 1 and 1.0) later. (I dislike this step btw, I prefer them to be individual)
well, 0 in N being the set of all rational numbers less than 0 is a bit beyond me
oh it's just {}
duh
Here when I write N I am meaning as a subset of R
You never actually use that the real numbers were constructed this way. It is just that this construction allows us to create a notion of R,+,*,< that satisfies certain axioms. Then we just use those axioms to prove whatever about R
if this construction of R does not help prove anything about R why was it done
just to see if it could be done? if R was possible
yayyy R exists hooray
So this means that if you are doing things with R and calculus and you create a contradiction, ZF is inconsistent and it is the set theorists problem now
It means that R makes sense, there have been many mathematical constructions which turns out to be not working
E.g. you should not do differentiation/integration naively
does that mean all real results are cancelled
@sour sinew want to help me with my search for a general polynomial recursive formula?
i want to describe the iterative sequence of polynomials in a meaningful manner
as in
$z_{n+k}=z_n+z_k$
yoavmal
in concept, of course
something along these lines, with stuff done to zn and zk
right now i have
for a sequence $z_{n+1}=p(z_n)$
yoavmal
is z the polynomial
where $p(z)=a\cdot z^m+c$
yoavmal
and $z_0=0$
yoavmal
what i have is
c, ac^m + c, a(ac^m+c)^m + c
$z_{n+k}=ha\cdot z_n^m+z_{k+1}$
yoavmal
zn is the Nth term in the sequence
and it behaves as a polynomial with respect to c
where h is some polynomial depending on the particular iteration
is this a generalization of the mandelbrot recurrence
yes
i have proven originally that
for the mandelbrot recurrence
we get
$z_{n+k}=h\cdot z_n^2+z_{k+1}$
yoavmal
wait let me re-prove it real quick
we have
wait
uhh
let me remember how it was phrased precisely
so it's really function from ordered pairs to ordered pairs
$a_{n-1} = (z,c) \implies a_n = (p(z,c),c)$
$z_{n+1}=h\cdot z_n^2+z_1$
ah so not k+1
yeah if you want to formalise it that way
what i prefer formalising it as is
$z_n$ is some algebraic expression in terms of complex numbers and $c$
yoavmal
and $p(z)$ is a polynomial of $z$, with coefficients which are polynomials of $c$
yoavmal
yoavmal
in other words $z_n^2 | z_{n+k} - z_{k+1}$
cute rizzly bear (won't eat you)
well interesting
but i have proven it oddly
i think
i want to reprove it
i also think i misphrased it
$z_{n+k}=h\cdot z_n^2+z_k$
yoavmal
i think?
ah
yoavmal
is this possible?
no, it t is not
but
$z_{n+1}=h\cdot z_n^2+z_1$
that does work
yoavmal
so we have a base for thehet induction
now lets try prove it
assume it works for some k
then we want to show it works for k+1
$z_{n+k}=h\cdot z_n^2+z_k$
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
$=hz_n^2+z_{k+1}$
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
which means that the multiplicities of the roots of $z_n$ are the same in $z_{kn}$
yoavmal
yoavmal
$z_{n+k}=ahz_n^m+z_k$
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
$z_{n+k+1}=a\qty(ahz_n^m+z_k)^m+c$
yoavmal
$=a\sum_{j=0}^m\binom{m}{j}(ahz_n^m)^jz_k^{m-j}+c$
yoavmal
$=a\sum_{j=1}^m\binom{m}{j}(ahz_n^m)^jz_k^{m-j}+az_k^m+c$
yoavmal
$=a\sum_{j=1}^m\binom{m}{j}(ahz_n^m)^jz_k^{m-j}+z_{k+1}$
yoavmal
$=a^2hz_n^m\sum_{j=1}^m\binom{m}{j}(ahz_n^m)^{j-1}z_k^{m-j}+z_{k+1}$
yoavmal
$=a^2z_n^mhg+z_{k+1}$
yoavmal
$=ha^2z_n^m+z_{k+1}$
yoavmal
oh so we have even better than previously
i mean, we can insert the a into the h and nothing changes
but i now wonder if we can extract more information from this
$z_{n+2}=a(haz_n^m+c)^m+c$
yoavmal
yoavmal
$z_{n+k+1}=a^2hz_n^m+z_{k+1}$
yoavmal
yoavmal
which will entail at least one factoring of a^2 in the final result
yes
$z_{n+k+j}=a^jhz_n^m+z_{k+j}$
yoavmal
yoavmal
more information is nice
@sour sinew
if you followed the shenanigans
now can we prove anything with induction here
on zkn
$z_{2n}=a^nhz_n^m+z_n$
yoavmal
so we have the base case
now we want to do something with zkn and show it for z(k+1)n
well we can always break it down to
$z_{(k+1)n}=a^{nk}hz_n^m+z_{kn}$
yoavmal
yoavmal
lets check what happens with k+1
$z_{(k+1)n}=z_{kn+n}=a^nhz_{nk}^m+z_n$
so we have that
yoavmal
uhh
no, i don't want that
i want it the other way around
$z_{(k+1)n}=a^{nk}hz_{n}^m+z_{nk}$
yoavmal
now, with our base induction, we assumed that znk can be written as something with some g
$=a^{nk}hz_n^m+a^ngz_n^m+z_n$
yoavmal
yoavmal
$=ha^nz_n^m+z_n$
yoavmal
right
so, that's what we can obtain
$z_{kn}=ha^nz_n^m+z_n$ is the most informative property we can achieve on this polynomial
yoavmal
now, we have not assumed a thing about the connection of a to c
it could be some polynomial of c
but, we do not care
since we can now factor the zn out
and get
$z_{kn}=z_n\qty(ha^nz_n^{m-1}+1)$
yoavmal
so this still holds
even if a is a polynomial of degree 1 or more of c
infact
we did not need to assume the +c
we only needed some coefficient
since the recursive relation still holds
in theory c could be some polynomial of another hidden variable
so really we can denote it a0
and a1 being the first coefficient
so what we obtain is
if we explicitly phrase the c in the equation
$z_{kn}=z_n(c)\qty(ha_1(c)^nz_n(c)^{m-1}+1)$
yoavmal
i wonder
can we do this for noninteger m
i assume the binomial expansion becomes inconvergent
that would definitely be weird
it would probably break due to the multiplicity of roots
but
maybe it could phrase some riemann surface
which would be increasing in dimension every step
that would be the result
infinite values
it can still be multivalued
infact
it forms a "multiplicative" group, really additive
if m is irrational it just forms a group isomorphic to the integers
makes sense
since really
otherwise it's z/qz
yoavmal
if m is irrational
what do we get
we get all z^(nm) for integer n
^m
so for each of those we get
$z^{knm^2}$
yoavmal
heh, so it is multiplicative
so
it just creates another group isomorphic to the integers
but what about
mapping the whole thing
eh i'm tired
maybe ill try to prove it with my version
anyways @sour sinew what i wanted to show is something like this for a general p(z), not just for z^m+a0 ones
ah
yeah
ah
well if we've got this proven
the notation is mostly irrelevant
you can phrase it in yours too
now that we have it
true
this?
in terms of our polynomial?
this kind of style
i thought it would be like
$z_{n+k}=hp(z_{n})+z_k$
yoavmal
but it's not precisely correct
for instance, with what we have right now it's actually
well
for
z^2+c
we get
$z_{n+k}=h\cdot(p(z_n)-c)+z_k$
is that multiplication by h or substitution in h
yoavmal
hm
and if we absorb the a^n to the polynomial
for the more recent general form
we get
(i think)
$z_{n+k}=h\cdot(p(z_n)-a_0)+z_k$
yoavmal
and this is with 1 term besides a0, a2z^m
lets see how it behaves if we set a1 diffeerent from 0?
like
a2z^m+a1z^k+a0
for k != m
say
k<m
actually
simplest starting point
lets say
z^2+z+c
lets see how it behaves
z0=0
z1=c
z2=c^2+2c
,w expand (c^2+2c)^2+(c^2+2c)+c
wolfram is very helpful
what is a0
in mandelbrot we can actually get a convergent sequence of coefficients
i.e.
the first n coefficients are the same for the rest of the iterations
or is it from the constant coefficient up
if we look at z^2+c
we get
0
c
c^2+c
c^4+2c^3+c^2+c
,w expand (c^4+2c^3+c^2+c)^2+c
so the first 3 terms are still 2,1,1
and the fourth term, is 5
and will be 5 for the rest
if we were to do another iteration
some power series of z s.t. z^2 + c = z
well sort of
only the first n coefficients are set
whereas we have 2^n coefficients
which means there is a non-negligent value in each term not deducted by those terms
so if you try to calculate the series with the coefficients it converges to
it would mostly converge to something else
or diverge
etc
also the coefficients converge to the catalan numbers, which is cool
anyways
what else do we get
,w power series of (1-sqrt(1-4c))/2
ye but it doesn't work precisely
anyways
we're looking at z^2+z+c now
z0=0
z1=c
z2=c^2+2c
z3=c^4+4c^3+5c^2+3c
,w expand (c^4+4c^3+5c^2+3c)^2+(c^4+4c^3+5c^2+3c)+c
z0=0
z1=c
z2=c2+2c
z3=c4+4c3+5c2+3c
z4=c8+8c7+26c6+46c5+50c4+34c3+14c2+4c
is it just me or are the coefficients of the second term the catalan numbers now
it is pretty weird if the catalan numbers start at 4 and drop to 1 7 terms later
,w expand (14c^2+4c)^2+(14c^2+4c)+c
,w catalan numbers
nope, different sequence
,w expand (666c)^2 + (666c) + c
perfection
why
idk
lol
so can we get anything out of this
lets check if we can do some neat algebra to divide multiplicatives
$z_4/z_2=p^2(z_2)/z_2$
yoavmal
$\frac{p(z_2)^2+p(z_2)+c}{z_2}$
yoavmal
$\frac{(z_2^2+z_2+c)^2+z_2^2+z_2+c+c}{z_2}$
yoavmal
uhh wait
why am i doing it like this
oh yeah i can cancel some of the terms already
$\frac{(z_2^2+z_2+c)^2+2c}{z_2}+1+z_2$
yoavmal
$\frac{(z_2^4+z_2^2+c^2)+(2z_2^2z_2+2z_2^2c+2z_2c)+2c}{z_2}+1+z_2$
yoavmal
$\frac{c^2+2c}{z_2}+(2z_2^2)+z_2^3+z_2+2z_2c+2c+1+z_2$
yoavmal
$\frac{z_2}{z_2}+z_2^3+2z_2^2+2z_2c+2c+1+2z_2$
yoavmal
$1+z_2^3+2z_2^2+2z_2c+2c+1+2z_2$
yoavmal
$z_2^3+2z_2^2+2z_2c+2c+2+2z_2$
yoavmal
$z_2^3+2z_2^2+2z_2(c+1)+2c+2$
yoavmal
$z_2^3+2z_2^2+2z_2(c+1)+2(c+1)$
yoavmal
yoavmal
and if we take this writing
we see that this has a nonzero coefficient
that is not a polynomial of z2 nor c
and moreso
we have a free coefficient from z2 as well
meaning that if z2=0
for a particular c
then this whole thing is not 0
can we replicate this result with z6?
$z_6/z_2=\frac{p^4(z_2)}{z_2}$
oo i have an idea
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
yoavmal
$\frac{((hz_2)^2+hz_2+c)^2+(hz_2)^2+2c}{z_2}+h$
yoavmal
ooo this is perfect
@sour sinew i believe that this form is still correct
like, i can show this is indeed divisible
but the proof here is actually inductive
and general for all multiples of 2
we can probably show this is correct for all znk for all n,k
then we can maybe generalise for a2z^2+a1z+a0
and then maybe to a2z^m+a1z+a0
and then maybe to a2z^m+a1z^k+a0
and then maybe, maybe, to some general polynomial p(z)
given our conditions are sufficient
epic
also @dusty swallow
while my statement from earlier was incorrect
it was deduced from something that is correct
that being
.
it's just that m can be 1 in theory
but the lemma can be stated as
if zn has a factor r with multiplicity m
then zkn has the same factor r with the same multiplicity m
which works for all a0
even if they're independent of c
yoavmal
then
