#general discussion
1 messages · Page 6 of 1
What? @wild pendant he is right
Oops
Yeah its in the name itself jado
I read that as irrational
I see
Sorry XD
Jado, if a number is rational it means it can be expressed as a ratio of two integers
Yess
U guys still on this shit
So 1/2 aka 0.5 is rational cuz 0.5 can be written as 1/2 or 2/4 or 3/6
yeah
Apparently so
10/5
We’re helping a middle schooler understand roots of a function vs square roots and rational/irrational numbers
5/10*
So if you’re not gonna help don’t be a jerk to those trynna learn ❤️
No matter how miserable your life may be 🙂
so what is f(x)
A function that takes in an input x and returns a unique value
f(x) = 2
When you have a f(x)
Is not a function
Because you are not returning any unique value
Jado let me show u an example
2 is unique
oh
F(3)=2
Yee
F(1) =2*1 =2
f(x) = 2x
but what if f(3)=3×2
f(3) = 9
F(2) = 2*2=4
F(3)= 2*3=6
Nooooo
Jado
You’re confusing squaring a number and multiplying it by 2
F(3) =2*3 =6
@burnt nest
yeah exactly
Is f(x)=2x
f(10) = 20
If*
yeah
We have f(x) 2*x
yes
2*10
So do you see how for every unique x, we are getting unique f(x) values?
Yeah
Like f(0) is a different number from f(1)
the a x axsis
XD
f(2) is different from f(4)
And is f(5) the same as f(15)?
no
that is not a function
Because there's no x anywhere
The answer must have an x
No matter what values x will have, f will always be 2
The function must have an x*
Because there's no x anywhere
yes
Thank you jado
so x asis is always a root ?
Im an insomniac but our interaction has fried my brain enough for me to sleep
axsis
Nope
Depends on the function
A root is simply the value of x for a function where f(x) =0
For instance
For f(x) =2x
I think i will learn that next year
The toot of the function is where 2x=0
the axsis
So x=0
X is always 0
The root is a point where x=0 and y =0
because f(x) = 0
Ye
Not for all functions
For f(x) =x+1
The root of the function is not at 0
Because f(0) = 0+1=1
But
F(-1) = -1+1 =0
For x = -1
f(x) is 0
Hence the root of the equation f(x) =x+1 is when x=-1
oh
So minus 1 is the root of that function
-1 is root of f(x)=0
So the roots change depending on the function
Some functions don't have roots at all
one last question
^
They all differ from each other
Gonkn
what if f(x) = 1 what is root of dat
Oh yeah
We just went over this
shit
💀
Poor ram XD
Try again tho
Give me another function thats actually a function
Ik u can do this jado
f(x) = x
Yes
Y=x
It's a really important function too
Wow jado im so proud of you
y = 0?
No
Its called the reflection function
U guys still talking
That's the x axis
Stfu dapz
I will Hunt u down
Shut the fuck up
y = 0 is the x axis
hello dappy
Hello Jado
why dont you join us
Are u having fun pretending to be stupid
Like i said if you’re gonna be of no help stop being a jerk to those trynna learn ❤️😌
i actually do not know what is a function
pronto
Ye ofc u don’t 
Dw about dappy jado she’s a miserable and frustrated lil chap
Ram we were having a moment here
A romantic one if I might add
U should
Still don’t
It’s prob the only time u will see it in ur life
It means u will slowly suffer loneliness
you mean you and your non existent romantic life 💀
hemu gets no bitches
I got Jado
Dappy gets no dick/pussy
he got dic
Im so happy for you
Wtf
Who do u have
Ping a single person who cares about u
Exaxctly
Leave while u still can
A more direct “ur not wanted” prob doesn’t exist
And her female owner 💀
,time @frigid hollow
This user hasn't set their timezone! Ask them to set it using ,ti --set.
Anyway
good bye guys im about to go pray
cya
But it’s okay, cope with your loneliness ❤️
So this is Euler’s number expressed as a summation and maybe I’m misunderstanding something about summations but why does n start at 0 instead of 1?
Actually nvm lol
It’s a factorial
@frigid hollow f(x) = 1 is a function tho
Shouldda made it clear by a “function” we were speaking of strictly injectice functions
Injective*
so no f(x)=1 is not an injective function
you managed to spend so much time specifically saying this is not a function and you never made yourself clear that you were talking about injective functions specifically
insane
i did actually
I mentioned one to one
Which is injective
if your definitions are up to date 😂
You are bi
“Time parameter” 
Get your life up to date
ikr
Mf
Hm
basically the codomain and domain is equal for bijective
Actually this time ur right
Not for injective
They call it just one to one
Wtf is surjective though
Isn’t that not a function by definition
Cuz it’s many to one
Oh nvm
x^x is still a function
X^2
-1 and 1 are mapped to 1
what
Bruh
surjectivity isnt about that???
Meh, guess my high school teachers were just cappin
,w sqrt(8)
Rational or irrational @burnt nest
Yeah u’re right surjectivity has nothing to do with many to one
for any b in B, there exists a in A for which b = f(a), how does that relate to (-1)^2 = 1^2 = 1
,w vector
if i was a redditor, i'd say this is a certified r/confidentlyincorrect moment
but i only use reddit for nsfw material and memes
,w Function
so whatever
wasn’t confident about anything😂
surjective is injective and bijective
So basically, the range always has to be greater than or equal to the domain?
,w f(x) = 0x
Reviewing definitions of functions with john, you’re right jado i was wrong
Ah wait I confused non injective with surjective
f(x) = 2
That is not a function.
Surjective*
It is i was wrong, but id rather you call it a constant than a function
Facts
,w constant
,w f(x) = √2x
@frigid hollow i found a root
lmao
f(x) = sqrt(2x) does indeed have a root at x = 0
This man was
Actively confusing roots/zeroes of a function to square roots
So glad knowing the progress you’ve made
Actually impressive for a 6-7th grader
(💀)
well get off your high horse then and explain better
why don’t you lol
i have exams in two days
functions at 9th grade right
instead of choosing to nitpick randomly
gl
thank you
If u don’t get A’s
Then go study, your little rants aren’t gonna help you pass
I will Hunt u
Is the exam on maths
Good luck John
says your ass laughing at a kid
иди нахуй
What grade are you ian
All ik is privyet
11th
There ends my knowledge of russian
i got a 100/100 in my last math exam, thank you @frigid hollow
@burnt nest has given 1 rep to @frigid hollow
The exam will have
Systems, monotony, max and min of functions, trigonometry, polyonyms and exponentials and logarithms
Ez stuff
You did not help, the exam was about vectors and inequalities, but you gave me a boost to study harder.
ok
Yes
It works because you move y^2 on the other side and you do the difference of squares and then you'll have:
y=x or y=-x
Right?
That would be one way to argue, yes
It is not
Notice how for x = 2 y = 2 or -2
Had you only had one of the lines, it would be a linear function
Two occasions?
The fact that there are 2 equations for the same thing confuses me
The inverse operator of ^n where n is an even number is +-^(1/n)
Why when n is even
If you tried doing y^3=x^3 this would not occur
The two lines
Yeah but not +-
Wolfram ain’t working
Yea the other lines are in the complex planes
Thats what 98% of graphs are
Exactly
So why mention the other complex lines
When it isn’t in the scope of this discussion XD
Complex >>>>
Lol that’s one way of saying you hate RA
Never done RA before
But considering my name is the polar form of complex numbers…
Or the conversion from polar to cartesian
Im in 10th and just finished Pre-Calc
Don’t think my high school has RA
ap courses?
Real analysis is a part of precalc
Like functions and their domains is also real analysis
Oh so it prob wasn’t called that
but again, fairly introductory
Yea we’ve done that
Next year I'll only be taught limits, derivatives and how to solve integrals (only through the u substitution method)
Thats it?
Yeah
real analysis is literally simply analyzing the properties of real functions, but yeah i see what u mean
Next year they used to also teach us complex numbers and matrices
But the government changed it
CA the same but for complex numbers
Removed them
that’s dumb
Yea the main diff between Calc AB and BC is polar/parametrixs
Matrices scare me
Polar form in calc has a rather different meaning than in usual complex analysis
Polar form could mean polar coordinates
Which have nothing to do with imaginary numbers
But instead is a way of converting the coordinates from rectangular (cartesian) to cylindrical( you guessed it, polar)
Cartesian fans doing a degree 10 binomial expansion
(They could easily do ^10 times 10)
Our algebra teacher told us that we can use derivates and limits if we want on the exams
(we haven't been taught them yet)
What the exam over?
Limits are really intuitive
Yea
Here’s a fun one
Algebra
Systems, functions, trigonometry, polyonyms, exponentials and logarithms
Hmmst
He said that if yk how derivatives work, you can use em
Wonder when derivatives would help
(for example if we want to check the monotony of a function)
That's the only occasion they can help
I think
For the exam
But I still find it funny how he allowed us to use em
For Alg 2 for “turning points” of a polynomial our teacher just said to do degree-1
For the amount of turning points
When really it’s the maximum
Our algebra teacher doesn't care
He just wants to be retired XD
It's his last year
My Alg teacher somewhat cares
Lucky
The class is easy af for me so he could literally just not be here and I’d still be chilling
He does take a lot of days off tho
I'm the only one who understands what the teacher teaches, especially in geometry
(the algebra teacher also teaches us geometry)
So in the classes, I'm literally the only one who talks
My former geo teacher was tough but he actually taught students
And answers
Like he’d do basic deriving and make questions harder than the test
Damn
I’d assume you’d have to prove lim x->inf x^n/n^x = 0 for natural n larger than some value
in f?
Or = inf
I can see a limit question relating to trig
Or lnf
Ooh
“Prove using limits that for any small x, sin(x) ≈x”
And u need differentiation too
Engineers be like
I highly doubt he'll do that
Because limits and stuff are next year
Also
I'm the only student in my class who knows at least a bit math
Because you have to use L’hopitals rule
American students are something else
To show this
Literally all my classmates make the mistake:
(a+b)^2 =a^2 +b^2
My chem teacher had to teach times tables to some of the kids cuz they couldn’t do 1d by 1d multiplication without calculator
if for a small x, sin(x) is about x
Yea
Then it should satisfy the limit
f'(x)/g'(x) = f(x)/g(x)
Right?
Lim(x goes to 0) = sin(x)/x goes to 1
If f(x) and g(x) = 0,inf, or -inf
How do we prove that?
,w la’hospital
Wolfram Alpha doesn't understand your query!
Perhaps try rephrasing your question?
Click here to refine your query online
Differentiate the top and bottom
Boi
Because then it becomes
The limit
Cos(x)/1
Aka cos(x)
And we know cos(0) is 1
Hence
lim sinx/x = 1
X->0
Sin(x)/x =1 for an infinitesimal x
Hence
Sin(x) =x for an infinitesimal x
Infinitesimal = almost 0 but not 0
The Bolzano theory
What exactly does it say?
Because I've seen it so many damn times and every time I hear a different definition of it

I am incorrect
Bolzano was actually a very sound mathematician
I read his “theory of sensing information” and concluded it was pseudoscience
My working is based on circular reasoning so disregard what i said
About the sin(x)/x as x approaches 0
Problem is you cannot use l’hopital’s rule
Because to use l’hopital’s rule you have to take the derivative of sin(x)
Taking the derivative of sin(x) requires us to plug in the definition of a derivative (lim(h goes to 0) (f(x+h)-f(x))/h and so in our question it is lim(h goes to 0) (sin(x+h)-sin(x))/h, but to resolve this limit, we get a term that is the limit (sin(h)/h) as h goes to 0, which is the original limit we’re trying to resolve
So we have to assume this goes to 1 to begin with to prove the derivative of sin(x) is cos(x) and to use l’hopital’s rule to prove sin(x)/x is 1 as x goes to infinity
Aka circular reasoning
Yeah you prove this limit using squeeze theorem not L’hopital’s rule
$\sqrt{0}$
Jado 🇲🇦
rational or irrational? @burnt nest
Whats the square root of 10
Thanks
Np
Ok
small angle approximation, derived using geometry
Error
maclaurin series are based on derivatives, however you can derive the first term of the sinx series using geometry
(x)
or even more, but the first term is incredibly trivial
although squeeze theorem is nowhere close to circular reasoning so meh
You can use L’Hôpitals. There is a clever way to avoid taking this limit again when differentiating: using the series form. The series form is the formal analytic definition of $\sin(x)$. So, if we term-by-term differentiate and result with $\cos(x)$, then L’Hôpital still applies.
an evil woman in a suit
There is a third approach that can be taken.
Consider a local approximation of $\sin(x) \sim x$.
an evil woman in a suit
We have that for all non-negative $x$, $x \ge \sin(x)$.
an evil woman in a suit
Consider then that $\lim_{x \to 0} x - \sin(x) = 0$.
an evil woman in a suit
As both functions are continuous, we have that $\lim_{x \to 0} x = \lim_{x \to 0} \sin(x)$.
an evil woman in a suit
feeling devious, might delete your latex 😏
besides the fact you literally said the exact shit I did 
just in significantly more words
I said it more formally.
"more formally" == "significantly more words"
I dislike the Squeeze Theorem for most cases.
it's because you're extremely skinny, never have to squeeze theorem a pair of jeans
There are so many possible functions you can use to squeeze theorem your way into this one.
ok mini pekka
Did you know that $\lim_{x \to 0} W(x) - W(2x)$ is not defined for the Weierstrass function?
an evil woman in a suit
There are also points which are locally Lipschitz on the Weierstrass.
Yes but using L’hopital’s without proving the limit of sin(x) is cos(x) is circular reasoning😂
Which is all i said
Feel like you could use sin sum angles formula
Lol not you could you need the sum of angles formula to expand sin(x+h)
sin(x)cos(h) + sin(h)cos(x)
Subtract sin(x) cuz def of derivative gets sinx(cosh-1] + sin(h)cos(x)
see the issue?
To resolve the derivative we need to show the lim as h tends to 0 of (cos(h)-1)/h is 0 and sin(h)/h is 1 to conclude the derivative of sin(x) is cos(x)
Maybe we could prove la’hospital
So if you were differentiating sin(x)/x top and bottom to resolve the limit we need to conclude the limit sin(h)/h is 1 to begin with😂
Aka circular reasoning
Is there some way to use squeeze?
L’hopital’s is proven to not work for some discontinuous functions
Sad
Yeah iirc its establishing for all x, sin(x)>tan(x) ( by definition sin is opp/hypo and tan is opp/adj
Wouldn’t sin < tan
Yeah the other way
As hypo > adj
Then do 1/ to both of them
tan(x)/x ?
To get 1/sin(x)>1/tan(x)
Actually
You could start with
Sin(x)<x<tan(x)
Where x is in radians
This would apply
Then flip it so 1/sin(x)>1/x>1/tan(x)
Now
Multiply by sin(x)
1/tan(x) is cos(x)/sin(x)
And 1/sin(x) times sin(x) is 1
So we get
1>sin(x)/x>cos(x) as the limit x tends to 0
1>sin(x)/x>1
By squeeze theorem
Sin(x)/x =1 as x tends to 0
Cheers!
great, now you can use L'hopital's
Redundant
nooooo, you're kidding!
Nope
you've proven the result that sin(h)/h = 1
So why would i use L’hopital’s 😂
therefore now you can use L'hopital's to show that sinx/x=1
Already proved the limit, hence using L’hopital’s would be redundant
why wouldn't you use L'hopital's?????
Because…. It’s redundant 💀
of course not
If the limit we were trying to prove is already proven💀
In this case it is redundant
no
Yes
prove it again
No
use L'hopital's
prove via epsilon delta
then sketch the graph of sinx/x and integrate over ℝ
❤️
I combined both steps and graphed the integral of sin(x)/x
Easy
0/0
=e^pi
yeah I'm putting that one down as a fail, you have to do it by hand
Still ez
and graph it
yup, cheating again
You asked me to graph it
you gotta graph it by hand, that's an overall fail on the assignment
Not graph it by hand
better luck next time
I said you have to do it by hand here
you failed, cope.
Will do
Learnt something new tho didn’t know you could express trig integrals in closed form expressions
👴👍
if you mean Si(x) then that's incorrect
closed form has a finite number of operations, Si has an infinite
same with Li etc
learnt something else too thank you
@frigid hollow has given 1 rep to @agile roost
could you still assert that Si(x) can be expressed using elementary algebraic/arithmetic operators and functions?
the operators themselves are elementary, but there are infinitely many, so it's nonelementary
If i have math problem i need help with outside of school and uni can i post it here
Define outside of school and uni
General math problem about probability, dw though i already got help in the main general chat
Yeah, trust me i wasn’t worried💀
Fair enough i wouldn't be either but idk incase of anxiety or something
😟
@jagged elk sorry to ping you outta nowhere but i wanted to discuss some math with you since you're a phd student
your insight would be invaluable
@pulsar beacon
@normal arrow
well aight the formula is pretty useless cuz u end up having to solve another equation featuring tetration BUT it’s of 1 degree lower (n-1)
😂😂
Basically
Take that decimal mumber
Number
And raise it to itself 3 times
Its pretty cool what u end up getting no?
1.47668433735787^(1.47668433735787^1.47668433735787)
paste that anywhere
,w 1.47668433735787^(1.47668433735787^1.47668433735787)
🙂
John get eaten alive
Nah I think that's quite the method
so you have a recursive formula, solve for the general formula
took me a while to rederive it but basically uhhh
this is literally just substitution in disguise
and your method is really useless because you now have to solve the fucking uhhhh
shh!!!
xe^xe^x = a
solve the recursion
Alex lmao
what 👼

Ram when he finds out his life efforts are useless
And Alex is playing with him all this time
I'm innocent on all counts
idk what you're talking about 😇
“Life efforts” why project your tendency to waste your life on me😂
Im sure someone will validate you for all the riddles you post!

I can luckily assure u I have a little bit higher life effort than posting riddles on this server, thank u
I couldn't tell
nah i was drying my dog
y'know
you wash it and then you dry it
Same for u and being discord mod
you dry it then wash it
you are a madman
you wash it then u wash it

then u shot it
you wash it then put it in a particle accelerator
or vacuum chamber
no air pressure = water boils off
wow you guys are weird haha
you clearly have not worked with a particle accelerator
one of the highlights of my time in physics
what the FUCK is a logarithm even, why can i just do lg(100000) on a calculator and get the exponent and what does the calculator do what I can't
log is not a normal formula like a polynomial or e^… It kinda behaves like sin in the sense that if I ask u what sin(2) is, u can’t give me a good answer but atmost a simple heuristik. So what does the calculator do when we plug things in like sin(..) or log(..) - Taylor expansions. I don’t know how familiar u r with Taylor expansions but the idea is to “approximate” hard functions like sin, log and simply describe them using a polynomial. This way only computing the 100th terms of this polynomial already gives an answer so accurate, that for applied math there really is no point in continuing(those terms get smaller over time, therefore adding the first ones does the trick).
@honest summit

Congrats for explaining middle school math
It was kinda the exact thing i wondered
Because i have just been frustrated what the fuck the calculator does compared to why you can't just expand functions like cos() sin() log() etc
Into something more sensible than a word that randomly appears into equations
Also thank you
@honest summit has given 1 rep to @dusty swallow
Good question, and the answer is that we do have expansion as dappy explained above but would only be merely an approximation made by hand however a computer can generate a greater accuracy and a great to show the series are the cos and sines.
Btw all this are just operators and their series explain what happens to the input
Taylor series and expansion are those different or the same thing
Same
Alright alright i just like to know stuff from the complete ground up and from what I've search i haven't really gotten a good answer as well
I watched a video about which just said that there was a mathematician in 1700's or 1800's who just estimated a stupid amount of logs which was then essentially what was used until calculators
claculated estimations so to speak
Also found an old math book which just had full pages of log estimations
But very well
Taylor series it is at least
Oh interesting
Most disbelief I've had in math because it was just estimations all the way
I feel there should be another to calculate it because it exists in the natural world
Calculate what
Well they are operators derived from the unit circle, atlesast for trig ratios
I don't think there exist any rigorous formula that gives the value of a sinx to such an accuracy
We should instead find the exact value of sin for 1000 non co-terminal angles and create a 999 degree polynomial estimation for sin(x) from 0 to 2pi
erm!!!
only gotta do it fo 0 to pi/2
Oh yea true
Once you have sin you also can do the other trig functions from there
and then that covers cos and tan and sec and cot and csc and hacovercosine etc
Yea
i love hacovercosine
Quartercosine
no, hacovercosine is real trig!!
normal type in Ohio
,w hacovercosine
Is ur gf by any chance a function
nah
Sorry but please explain how this is a 3 mark question...
"proceeds to find k" bruh the process of finding k is unbelievably long there's no way that's 1 mark...
To answer this 3 mark question I needed to expand at least 4 quadratics...
and technically speaking since I put "k = 0 or 10/3" instead of just "k = 10/3" I wouldn't have gotten the final accuracy mark, so technically that screenshot is only 2 marks worth of working out...
I'm pissed (even though that was a practise question)
incorrect, Sin() cos() and log() are not operators but functions. making the distinction is important to further analyze the properties of functional operators fundamental to transforming. a function f(x) to another function g(x)
This is because functions have inverses, but operators, I mean binary operators with two variables (x^y takes x and y) can be made 'functional' and thus invertible either by holding x constant or y constant, if you hold neither operand constant then you have an operator
tf do you think the series expansion you derived of Si(x) was then
like isn't the definition of Si(x) using an integral more simplified than the series expansion
How would u measure “simplicity” 💀
yes, doesnt change anything
Don’t tell me there is an actual way
he's somewhat right
nah
Ok thx bud
no definition that i know of, just less space
also easier to apply
you recognise from a series that it is the riemann sum of a known integral, not the other way round
I See
ah yes this integral appears to be the riemann sum of... this integral, therefore it is the known integral, of this integral

does this work..?
i feel i have missed something crucial
because answer made no sense to me
considering i know next to nothing how taylor series work it's very likely i missed something
the picture is from some uni tho
yes
so i should be able to continue this sequence and get a result that is as close as possible to cos(x) where x is degrees, as usual?
I think it was for radians

makes sense
What type of maths is this ?
Summation?
no! silly, it's curly wurly operational calcoolus
it was radians i have finally calculated cos(x) without writing cos
thank you
Guy is keeping count of the analysis

Np
no worries, I'm THE 4σ male
Only 4sigma

Can one become so smart they are literally viewed as someone with mental condition
Like so esoteric that you're seen as a stupid person
@chrome basin this
saw something similar in a 3b1b vid but i can't remember what it is about or how it works
who are you asking
aight
second?
fair fair
gonna go into enginnering next semester
i would've earlier but my teachers messed up teaching math in high school
2nd
ehh, Nikola Tesla... Bobby Fischer
it's not too uncommon
but the insanity is usually a byproduct of high intelligence. Not everyone of a certain intelligence will develop it, they'll usually have a higher chance of it though
Fair
enough
Hello general math(s) discussion
can't divide by a matrix!!
Shush
Also x/x = 1 for all nums x
Seems like it should apply to matrix
r•eⁱˣ = r•cos(x) + ri•sin(x)
Even better, if we can prove that
For some natural number n, n>1:
$$
\begin{bmatrix}
a & b \\
c & d \\
\end{bmatrix}^n
=
\begin{bmatrix}
a & b \\
c & d \\
\end{bmatrix} * a
$$
For some number a, then taking the n-1 root of a gives the value of that matrix
Why tf did I use a as the scalar
When it’s an element of the matrix
Uses e instead
New challenge:
Find a matrix whos value is i
Alternatively : Find a matrix M such that M^3 = -1•M
1 0
0 -1 smh
wait no
Not checking that (too lazy)
No cuz then divide by M you get M = -1
Also that matrix squared ain’t even it’s negative
i is a rotation by 90 deg
tis
tis what?

-1 0
0 -1 works
-1 0
a 0 for all a
real
0 0
a -1
a b
-(a^2+a)/b -(a+1) too
just solved the system xoxo
0 -1
1 0 is the closest matrix you'll get to actually i
because if you liken 1 to I then M^2=-I
which if you cube it then yes, you get -M
happy???
now you can do your illegal maths
Brb gotta verify your claim
Correct. Good job
$
\begin{bmatrix}
0 & -1 \
1 & 0 \
\end{bmatrix}
i
$
r•eⁱˣ = r•cos(x) + ri•sin(x)
i hate you
Why
but its sorta right
both do a rotation of pi/2 rad in their respective planes
it's still painful to know how you derived that equality
how you derived it is faulty, but the actual thing is somewhat correct
if you have x+iy and then form pairs in R^2 like (x,y) then multiplying by i is the same as using that matrix
Yea also the matrix only equals i when cubing
I^2=1
Otherwise you could make the claim that real num • real num = complex num
the identity matrix is basically 1
MATRICES ARENT REAL NUMBERS
As any matrix times it equals one
I meant when finding the elements of the product matrix

You multiply an element (real) by the matrix equaling i and get a complex
in R^2 then reverting, yes
multiplying any pair (a,0) will yield (0,a) which is ia
This looks so esoteric
I looked up rotational matrix, makes sense
You can use this to make a 2 by 2 matrix of any real or complex number
an evil magma in a suit
$v = \langle v_1, v_2, v_3 \rangle$
an evil magma in a suit
$u \cdot v = u_1v_1 + u_2v_2 + u_3v_3$
an evil magma in a suit
$u = \langle u_1, u_2, u_3, \dots \rangle$
an evil magma in a suit
$v = \langle v_1, v_2, v_3, \dots \rangle$
an evil magma in a suit
$u \cdot v = \sum_{n = 1} u_n v_n$
an evil magma in a suit
$\langle 2, 3, 4 \rangle \cdot \langle -1, 1, -4 \rangle$
an evil magma in a suit
$\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{v}} = \vec{\mathbf{v}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{u}}$
an evil magma in a suit
$\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{v}} = \sum_{i=1} \vec{\mathbf{u}}_i \vec{\mathbf{v}}_i$
an evil magma in a suit
$\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{v}} = \sum_{i=1} \vec{\mathbf{v}}_i \vec{\mathbf{u}}_i$
an evil magma in a suit
$\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{v}} = \sum_{i=1} \vec{\mathbf{v}}_i \vec{\mathbf{u}}_i = \vec{\mathbf{v}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{u}}$
an evil magma in a suit
$\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot (\vec{\mathbf{v}} + \vec{\mathbf{w}}) = \vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{v}} + \vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{w}}$
an evil magma in a suit
Lemma 1: $\vec{\mathbf{z}} = \vec{\mathbf{v}} + \vec{\mathbf{w}}$, then $\vec{\mathbf{z}}_i = \vec{\mathbf{v}}_i + \vec{\mathbf{w}}_i$
an evil magma in a suit
$\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot (\vec{\mathbf{v}} + \vec{\mathbf{w}}) = \vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{z}} = \sum_{i = 1} \vec{\mathbf{u}}_i \cdot \vec{\mathbf{z}}_i$
an evil magma in a suit
$\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot (\vec{\mathbf{v}} + \vec{\mathbf{w}}) = \vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{z}} = \sum_{i = 1} \vec{\mathbf{u}}_i \cdot (\vec{\mathbf{v}}_i + \vec{\mathbf{w}}_i)$
an evil magma in a suit
We will say $c$ is a scalar.
an evil magma in a suit
$c(\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{v}}) = (c\vec{\mathbf{u}}) \cdot \vec{\mathbf{v}} = \vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot (c\vec{\mathbf{v}})$
an evil magma in a suit
$\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{u}} = ||\vec{\mathbf{u}}||^2$
an evil magma in a suit
$\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{v}} = ||\vec{\mathbf{u}}||||\vec{\mathbf{v}}||\cos \theta$
an evil magma in a suit
$\cos \theta = \frac{\vec{\mathbf{u}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{v}}}{||\vec{\mathbf{u}}|| : ||\vec{\mathbf{v}}||}$
an evil magma in a suit
$i + j + k$ and $2i - j - 3k$
an evil magma in a suit
$\cos \theta = \frac{(i + j + k) \cdot (2i - j - 3k)}{||i + j + k|| : ||2i - j -k||}$
an evil magma in a suit
$\cos \theta = \frac{1(2) + (1)(-1) + (1)(-3)}{||i + j + k|| : ||2i - j -3k||}$
$\cos \theta = \frac{-2}{||i + j + k|| : ||2i - j -k||}$
an evil magma in a suit
$||\langle a,b,c\rangle|| = \sqrt{a^2 + b^2 + c^2}$

