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The time complexity is O(1) because both loops will be optimized away because they do nothing
Ok but how about now? 
That's what I've asked. Why that instead of this. Please if you don't want to explain don't answer.
No need to be rude
It isn't O(log^2(n)) either
Well, now it is since you edited it again
Now it is. And you are the rude one. Now nobody else's gonna answer to this.
To understand why, answer two questions:
How many times does the outer loop run?
How many times does the inner loop run?
Chill, dude. Keep in mind everyone here is volunteering their time to help you understand things more.
You're right. I'm sorry.