#n(n−1) is even why ? It is divisible by 2 but why it's an intefer ?

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spice lark
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n(n−1)​/2=Even​

unreal plinthBOT
white vector
spice lark
white vector
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uhhh what

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btw n(n−1)​=even

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not n(n−1)​/2= even

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it's just that in any 2 adjacent numbers one of them has to be even

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so their product is even

long hedge
fickle cypress
long hedge
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Fr tho
If you know that n(n - 1) is an even number
that means there exists an INTEGER x such that n(n - 1) = 2x
and 2x/2 = x, which is, by existence, an INTEGER

tall sage
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n and n - 1 are neighbors of each other

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and because elements of the set {n|n\equiv 0\mod 2}\cup{n|n\equiv 1\mod 2}=Z such that both of them loop in binary we can say that there are two cases

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(1) n is in the first set (it's even)

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that implies n(n - 1) is a multiple of an even integer

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hence it's even

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(2) n is in the second set (it's odd)

errant owl
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dont use latex

tall sage
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that implies n - 1 no longer has remainder 1 and will be an even integer

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hence n(n - 1) is also a multiple of an even integer

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hence it's also even

tall sage
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i think it's implied that n in Z anyways

fervent pythonBOT
delicate flax
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Alternatively, if you have $n$ people and need to make a line of $n-2$, there's $\frac{n(n-1)}2$ ways to do that, so $\frac{n(n-1)}2$ is integral and $n(n-1)$ is even

fervent pythonBOT
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BlockLayer2000

obtuse wing
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i fear humanity

charred nest
# spice lark n(n−1)​/2=Even​

because an even number has a factor of 2 and any number with a factor of 2 is even so 2 times an odd is even and so is an even times an even

heady night
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since an integer, times itself minus 1 is always even

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you will divide it by two and receive an integer

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does that make sense?

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This is because an even times an odd always results in an even number