#Congruence Mod N: Proof structure and reasoning

49 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

fathom fjord
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Hello, I’m a bit stumped on writing up a proof for question 13. Note that Exercise 4.6.12 is just question 12. Mainly, I’d like some help with improving the reasoning in my proof sketch:

I understand that since a is a unit mod n and -a is also a unit mod n then this implies that the set of all units mod n, say S, is equivalent to -S (or is a permutation of S). Furthermore, since S is the set of all units mod n, and -a is also a unit mod n, then S must also include all additive inverses -a mod n. The idea here is to now group each unit in the sum with their additive inverse such that the total sum equals 0. However, I’m struggling to articulate why I can group up each term with its additive inverse without one number being left alone.

It was suggested to me that I follow the proof of Wilson’s theorem and how pairing terms was handled there, but I can’t seem to understand how to tie it into this proof. For example, the only case in which a number would be on its own is if $a \equiv -a (\mod n) \implies 2a \equiv 0 (\mod n) \implies n \mid 2a \implies n \mid 2$. This implies that when n = 1 or n = 2, then there exists a number which has its own additive inverse.

Will this help me to prove why I am able to pair terms with their inverses ‘nicely’, or is there a better solution that I’m missing? Any help is appreciated!

tacit brambleBOT
summer cragBOT
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Parayeet
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fathom fjord
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Also, these questions are from an introductory course to Discreet Math

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I'm not really sure, thats what I'm missing

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I don't really know how to show that I can in this case

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Isn't it true that phi of any n results in an even number?

keen merlin
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almost

fathom fjord
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oh for n > 2 right

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in that case, since phi of n is even then it guarantees I can create pairs right?

keen merlin
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well yes but they might not be the pairs you want

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so lets go back to a = -a mod n

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what can you do to this

fathom fjord
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use congruence properties to create 2a equiv 0 mod n

keen merlin
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this is true for all things inside Z/nZ

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what is special about a?

fathom fjord
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a is a unit mod n

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so gcd (a, n) = 1

keen merlin
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so what else can you do to a=-a mod n

fathom fjord
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divide by a?

keen merlin
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so what do you get

fathom fjord
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1 congruent to -1 mod n

keen merlin
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is that possible?

fathom fjord
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This relation is only possible if n = 2 from what I can tell

keen merlin
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so there you go

fathom fjord
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ah ok, so the only case in which a = -a is if n = 2

keen merlin
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you have to use the fact that a is a unit

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because generally this is not true

fathom fjord
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in any other case, this relation does not hold and so I can create pairs nicely then no?

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right

keen merlin
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3 = -3 mod 6

fathom fjord
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yes but 3 isn't a unit ok makes sense

keen merlin
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so because this works for units you can actually pair them up

fathom fjord
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is that really enough to argue my claim?

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that I can create pairs

keen merlin
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try and see

fathom fjord
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I can create pairs since for n > 2 phi of n is even

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which also works in this case since we've shown that a = -a mod n for a unit a mod n occures only when n = 2

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so yes pairs can be made

fathom fjord
keen merlin
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type something up first and then i can look at it

fathom fjord
keen merlin
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saying S = -S mod (n) is kinda weird I would just say that S = -S

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because its not equality modulo n, it is straight up equality in Z/nZ

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but yeah sure that proof looks good

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of course you need to check the n=2 case separately

fathom fjord
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Yup

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Ok perfect, thank you!

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.solved