#De Moivre's Theorem
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cos(6(0)) = 1
RHS: cos^6(0) = 1
-3cos^4 (0) = -3
3cos^2(0) = +3
-1
adding them up: 1 - 3 + 3 - 1 = 0
then its 1 = 0, which is a clear contradiction
hence this is NOT an identity in general
Thanks! If it's not a general identity, do you think the question itself is wrong? Or is there another way to approach this that I’m just totally missing? T_T
its quicker to approach like this...but you can also do it the harder way by breaking cos6a in 2(cos3a)²-1
after this whatever way you try to expand in cosa terms the term cos⁶a will always end up having a coefficient cuz it'll be multiplied by 2 in the end
¯_(ツ)_/¯
if you provide a counter-example then it's wrong
for example sps something = another thing
this will create an identity like in the above
BUT if you find even one counter-example to this
it'll be considered false
we can make it a quadratic by substituting cos^2(theta) = t
yeah that also works
using de moivres i got $32\cos^6(\theta) -48\cos^4(\theta) + 18\cos^2(\theta) - 1$
spaghetti
hm..it can be turned to a cubic
well.. the question isint always true..
true for cos = 2n(pie) or 2n+1(pie)
damn i forgot it, i have to revose
maybe its an equation rather than identity
"show that" usually implies that you need to prove the identity is true
if it was an equation it would explicitly say "solve for t"
fair point
ye, but it isint an identity