#need help with this integration problem

10 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

zealous lynx
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i tried writing 1 as sin^2 theta + cos^2 theta but i dont think it leads to anywhere

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onyx canopyBOT
analog nest
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if you use this trig identity you can reverse engineer it into the integrand

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which is easily solved if you know your trig derivatives/chain rule

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@zealous lynx

jaunty vine
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Alternatively, multiply top and bottom by (1 + cos θ)

zealous lynx
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thank you! @analog nest and @jaunty vine

zealous lynx
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how would i do part b tho?

twilit citrus
# zealous lynx how would i do part b tho?

cos theta=(1-tan^2(theta/2))/(1+tan^2(theta/2)) once u simplify the above equation u will get (1+tan^2(theta/2)) in the numerator and we know 1+tan^2(theta/2)=sec^2 (theta/2) and also that the derivative of tantheta is sec^2theta so then take tan theta/2 = x(substitution) and then u can solve it that way