#I think my proof is incorrect, Please help 🤗

20 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

hidden bone
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For plomble #10: Since F is nonempty,suppose B ∈ F. Let x be an arbitrary element of B. Then since B ⊆ A,x ∈ A,so by the definition of ⋂F,x ∈ ⋂F.
Thus,since x was arbitrary,we have shown that x ∈ B implies x ∈ ⋂F,Therefore B ⊆ ⋂F.

versed yokeBOT
hidden bone
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I think I jumped to conclusions by asserting x ∈ ⋂F after inferring x ∈ A,that’s another issue I felt I had here

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I also think that supposing B ∈ F might’ve been a little sketchy?

versed yokeBOT
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I think my proof is incorrect, Please help 🤗

gritty quarry
hidden bone
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Yes,that’s where I jumped to conclusions,I’ll edit it now 👍

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Is there anything else about the proof you would fix?

gritty quarry
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nope, the idea is fine

hidden bone
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Oh,okay

hidden bone
gritty quarry
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why are you assuming B ∈ F?

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the only premise we have is
B is a subset of A for every A ∈ F

hidden bone
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Yeah I don’t know either,that’s why I was sketchy

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When I did the scratch work,I thought “Since F is nonempty,there is a set in F,so by existential instantiation,I’ll let B be such a set” I thought that maybe I could reach the conclusion that way by using the subset given,But since B was already mentioned as a set,that’s where I thought “Maybe that’s a little sketchy” How could we do it better?

gritty quarry
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you do better by not invoking B ∈ F

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Let x be an arbitrary element of B. Then since B ⊆ A,x ∈ A,so since B is a subset of A for all A ∈ F, by definition of ⋂F,x ∈ ⋂F.
Thus,since x was arbitrary,we have shown that x ∈ B implies x ∈ ⋂F,Therefore B ⊆ ⋂F.
This is fine.

hidden bone
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Oh,I see now

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Ok. Thank you for the help

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.solved