#What Do We Do Math If Math Is Already Exist ?
76 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
⎡ cos(φ)·cos(θ) ⎤
⎢ cos(φ)·sin(θ) ⎥
⎣ sin(φ) ⎦
because with the physics and math we can create everything, look, this create an sphere
and if you want to incline the earth, this is this :
⎡ cos(α) -sin(α) 0 ⎤
⎢ sin(α) cos(α) 0 ⎥
⎣ 0 0 1 ⎦
with we math we can explain like, everything is this universe at 99.99%, this is why we do math
for put an write on a thing we cant explain by an other path
${|x|=3\big| x\in\mathbb R^3}$
average little shitty cornass in this planet
ahhhh too big
Tangent
alr
more better
pls <@&268886789983436800> ban this shitty little troller dumbass
more better: ${x\in\mathbb R^3\big|$ x is on the wanted sphere$}$
Tangent
Incredible
thx mod 🙏
oh not me ok
no, the other spammer
What a polite way to ask for that too
ok
At least he spammed in a place basically noone looks
lol
ohh yeah
but R is not a packet of infinite ?
wdym
i have heard somewhere than R is a packet of infinite, so this is not a good geometrical value ?
-# i have surely wrong because idk really this domain
im not sure what does "a packet of" means
Tangent
idk too, the guys said than when infinite is not enough, we do value like R than is a bigger infinite composite of infinite, and he represented him with a bag with infinite in him
Tangent
ohhh yeah this is it
the guys really bad explain and after i have not research by myself for more explain
basically $\aleph_0$ is countable and $\aleph_1$ isnt
Tangent
for explanation, do we agree that $\aleph_0$ is countable?
Tangent
yeah ? maybe
i mean $|\mathbb N|$ which is by definition $\aleph_0$
Tangent
yeah, this is a serie to 0 to infinite (but infinite is only a theory, so there is a limit in a moment)
yes
so, if we count [the size of the set] 0, 1, -1, 2, -2, ... we get to the same infinity
if i remember correctly the proof was something about listing all possible reals and then looking at the diagonal changing just to the next number and it still gives a number that is not present anywhere
yeah thats where im weak i dont remember the proof $\aleph_1\neq\aleph_0$
Tangent
would like to hear it too
no, like -∞ is a negative infinite and ∞ is a positive infinite
yeah i meant |{0}|, |{0, 1}|, |{0, 1, -1}|, ...
oh yeah for sure
so that means $|\mathbb Z|=\aleph_0$ as well
Tangent
yeah
ok now we know $|\mathbb Q|=|\mathbb Z|^2$
Tangent
yeah, but |Z|² do |Z| * |Z| so this do aleph2 no ?
ohh, this is because |Z| is already at his absolute, so he cannot be bigger than his max ?
I don't know what you mean by his absolute.
but the reason is more subtle.
There are larger infinities than Aleph_0
for instance, the cardinality of the reals is Beth_1 = 2^|Z|
i have learn (because him autodidact), than when there is this : |value| this is considered by the absolute or the cardinal of this value, i have wrong ?
ohhh, i understand, sorry if i take time to understand something 😅
And for any infinity we can construct a larger one.
so when we consider the cardinalities of infinite sets, if we can construct a function that maps each value of one to exactly one value of the other, and cover each value of the destination set (what we call a bijection), then they are the same size.
So the reason why |Q| = |Z| is because we can construct such a function.
(But the exact method to construct a function is not something that's easily expressed as a formula)
wow, this look impressive, me i learn more in the quantic, but this part of physics look very cool too 👍