#Why
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hmm.. that is what happens with the elementary ones
I guess you could use:
lim (f(x+h)-f(x))/h when h is close to 0 to prove it. (Using definition of derivative) or you could use the logarithm
You mean elementary functions?
yes
e^x(h-1)/h
Yes almost!
It is equal to e^x((e^h)-1)/h
What happens if h is very close to 0
e^x(1-1)/h
Yes exactly
e^x(0/h)
0/h when h is very close to 0?
Well 0/h is equal to 1
so e^x(1)=e^x
You proved why (e^x)’=e^x
When you want to prove the derivative of a function. Always use that:
I don't believe h -> 0, but not 0
h is so close to 0 you can consider it is equal to 0
Like really really close
It’s not EXACTLY 0 but very very close
Like 0.00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000….1
Do you understand?
No
It is not exactly 0
It’s not equal to 0 yeah
I meant it’s very close to 0
Counter example lim(x->0) sin x / x = 0/x = 0 but = 1
Well yeah for sin it is equal to 1
Do you know why?
series expansion
But for exponential,
(e^h-1)/h=1
cos x/1
This is called the series expansion
This is a way to approximate a function with a polynomial when this function is close to 0
))))))))))))) The Maclaurin series requires a derivative of the function
Well true. Taylor series is related to derivatives
This is the general formula
When you want to calculate limit for example when you have something like 0/0 and you don’t know the answer
You use the Taylor series approximation
a is h
It remains to prove lim(h->0) e^h-1/h
Yes and you have to use the series expansion formulas to prove that
Using the series expansion formula for ln(1+x)
]t = e^h -1, h = ln(t+1), t -> 0 lim(t->0) t/ln(t+1)
Yea exactly
That’s what I was writing
)
And what's next ?
I’m back
Now you have lim t/ln(t+1) when t->0 right?
You can rewrite it:
lim 1/(1/t)ln(t+1)) when t->0 do you agree?
I just put the t in the denominator
By multiply by 1/t each side
Do you understand?
Yes
Alright and you know that (1/t)(ln(1+t))=ln((1+t)^1/t))
Do you agree?
Because ln(a^n)=nln(a)
$lim \frac{1}{ln((1+t)^{1/t})};
$ $t->0$
Wait it’s not writing the right way
AstroGuy
How did you even come up with that?
Okay let me show you.
t->0 ln(t+1)/t = 1 => t/ln(t+1) = 1
$lim \frac{t}{ln(t+1)};$
$lim \frac{1}{(1/t)ln(t+1)};$
$lim \frac{1}{ln((t+1)^{1/t})}$
AstroGuy
1/ln e
Yes
How did you even come up with that?
Because lim (1+t)^1/t=e when t->0
That’s… another proof…
So lim ln((1+t)^1/t))=ln(e)=1 when t->0
Basically you need to prove that
….
It’s harder than I thought
Oops wrong one
QED ?
Euler's number/constant found by equating derivative of lnx at 1 with the limit definition lnx at a=1.
Some estimates for e are calculated using the argument of the limit for fractional values close to zero. Two equivalent limit definitions of e in the indeterminate form 1^infinity or one raised to infinity are established. A similar question...
That limit Im talking about
The upper one
Sorry for confusing you
Basically your limit end up with (e^x)’=lim e^x•(1/ln((1+t)^1/t)) when t->0
But you have to prove that lim (1+t)^1/t=e when t->0
Once you prove that, you win
? t->0+ this
n -> +inf, ]t = 1/n => t ->0+
?
Remember you had:
(e^x)’= lim e^x(e^h-1)/h when h->0 right?
yes
?
I just replaced (e^h-1) by t and h by ln(1+t) in the limit
next
Oh okay and then i multiplied by 1/t above and under the fraction
It had given:
(e^x)’=lim e^x(1/(1/t)ln(1+t)) when t->0
And with log rule: (1/t)ln(1+t)=ln((1+t)^1/t))
So it becomes:
(e^x)’=lim e^x(1/ln((1+t)^1/t)) when t->0
And by definition lim (1+t)^1/t=e when t->0
So you get (e^x)’=e^x(1/ln(e))
Hence (e^x)’=e^x
yes
You just have to prove that
To prove (e^x)’=e^x, you have to prove lim (1+t)^1/t=e when t->0
t->0+
Yeah 0+
.
Positive zero
e def = lim(n->inf) (1+1/n)^n
Oh yes you’re right!
n->+inf
You used infinity limit to prove the limit when t->0
Thank you
yes
yes
t->0+
t->0
lim (t->0-) (1+t)^1/t, ]m = -1/t, t = -1/m, m->+inf, lim (m->+inf) (1-1/m)^-m = lim 1/((m->+inf) (1+(-1)/m)^m) = 1/lim (m->+inf) (1+1/m)^-1 = 1/e^-1 = e