#hey did i just break mathamatics
41 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
ok listen
1 to the power 0 is 1
1 to the power 1 is 1
that means 1 to power 0 = 1 to power 1
bases same
we can compare powers
that means 0=1

You're trying to say that
$$f(a)=f(b) \implies a=b$$
where $f(x)=1^x$, $a=0$, and $b=1$.
Civil Service Pigeon
However, you can only say this is true when f is one to one
f is a constant function (meaning that it's not one to one), so you can't say that f(a)=f(b) implies a=b
can u explain in a bit more umm basic terms
this is not valid for bases having 1
im in 9th grade
ohh got it i thought i was gonna get nobel prize tommorow for this
apparantly i wont
I also thought this once
while studying NCERT CLASS IX
right; as log base 1 isnt defined
yup
u a jee guy bro?
But preparing for CLAT
true for base 1 for 1 true case doesnt proof your theory.
try w base 2
1 wrong case is enough to disproof your theory
JEE?
he having science commerce or Humanities
why you not having platinum badge in your bio
what
subscribing nitro for a year give you a platinum batch
its basic
!done
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