#Why 0.9999999...=1???
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you can prove this problem on the number line
There is no number on the number line between 0.999.. and 1 so we can prove that
but the best way to solve this problem is algebra
like him @real tundra
I think you can do it this way for other bases too like 0.11111...=1 (base two) or 0.666...=1 (base seven). Although can probably do same with the number line thingy now that i think about it.
yesss
but i think with this type of this problems use your way is the most suitable
especially in test
Idk I just find the usual explanation of multiplying and dividing 0.999... a bit hand wavy because I'm not entirely sure you're allowed to do those operations... But idk
I've never seen this question in a test but do you mean like it's more convincing than the typical one where people like multiply 0.999... by ten then do some stuff.
I think the number line method sounds about as convincing too tho.
But Idk
Idk I don't have any ideas šš
Depends
For real numbers itās true
So go back to the definition of a real number
If thatās what youāre wondering about
I'm not sure about my way either. but i think your way is good
There is a real way of doing it
Don't you have to prove that 0.999... is a real number in the first place doing it that way?
Or is it sufficient to say like "assume 0.999... not a real number -> ... ->" and "assume 0.999... is a real number -> ... ->" like both cases
An alternative simple explanation is to use algebraic manipulation:
A/9 = 0.AAAAAAAAA...
1/3 = 3/9 = 0.333333...
3 ⢠3/9 = 3 ⢠0.3333... = 0.9999...
But then 0.999.. = 9/9 = 1
with your idea but this depends about how many A
How do you prove that the normal laws of multiplication would hold for such an object though? I mean isn't this assuming 0.999... exists and is a real number in the first place.
i mean, i used A cuz usually capitalized letters are used as algarisms
You have to first explain what that short hand āā¦ā is defined as, if itās for the number that is defined by the sequence a_1 =0.9, a_2 = 0.99, etc then use the definition of real numbers for say Cauchy sequences of rationals it will be a real number
as it is a periodic dizim, its not only real but its racional
The thing we want to show is that sequence and the constant one defined by 1, are Cauchy equivalents
Or you can do:
x = 0.999...
10x = 9.999...
10x - x = 9.999... - 0.999...
9x = 9
x = 9/9 = 1
0.999... = 1
Ah okay thanks that's what I was looking for that should show it's real then right?
Yeah if weāre explicit about what ⦠repeating means and we use say the definition of real numbers by Cauchy sequences then itās just some real number
And we can show that it has the same property and indeed moreover is the same number as 1
This could also be done by showing that 0.99999ā¦. Is a multiplicative identity for the Cauchy representatives
Yeah well once you've shown it's a real number then it's okay to use like the 10*(0.999...) way isn't it?
Well sort of ish, you have be precise and show that each thing you get is still the same real number
Thatās why itās just easier to directly show its defined by the same sequence for 1
Why? Isn't a*b still real if they're both real I don't understand
Yeah you have to show that
But moreover that your representation of that multiplication is the same as youāre claiming it to be
Huh? Isn't closed under multiplication assumed
But if it's all real it should be closed i dont see why you need to prove it again i thought that's just a property of R
Yeah i think proving multiplication is closed is a bit too detailed
i think you guys are.. Overcomplicating things
If ur definition is āthe unique ordered field with the least upper bound propertyā then sure
Donāt have to do it by multiplication
I think that's mainly what I've seen online where u do 10(0.999...) and then some addition and other stuff
Just show that a Cauchy sequence that defines 0.99999 and 1 are Cauchy equivalent
Itās very direct that way
Is that any more direct doing it that way, than say; showing 0.999... is defined by a cauchy sequence and so belongs to R and so the usual online method follows?
I think if so then it's better
Thereās a disconnect here. 0.999⦠and 1 are representatives for the same number
By showing 0.999⦠is a real number youād almost automatically show itās 1
That's what we're trying to show yeah
Oh is the way that you show 0.999... is a cauchy sequence involves a step where you equate it to 1 you mean? Idk what is cauchy sequence things tbh
Yeah sort of. Let me try and explain it.
If we go by the definition of real numbers with Cauchy sequences, then what that basically means is that a real number is just some equivalence class, a set where all elements in this class is considered the āsameā by some relation (Iāll get to which one soon)
So two distinct real numbers (which we remember can be seen as two distinct classes) have elements in them that are not considered the āsameā.
0.999⦠and 1 are representations of that same class. Moreover, 1 is uniquely defined as the multiplicative identity. So showing 0.999⦠has that property and in so in particular is a real number; then 0.999⦠and 1 are the same.
A Cauchy sequence is a sequence of numbers which eventually clump together. The sequence doesnāt have to have a limit.
We define a relation on Cauchy sequences of rational numbers, by saying that two Cauchy sequences are equivalent iff their difference converges to 0. Note that this doesnāt necessarily mean they convergence and have the same limit, but just that their difference converges to 0.
This relation is a so called equivalence relation (which means the relation has certain properties akin to the = relation).
And so we can define the class of all elements which are the same under this relation.
This class defines some real number.
Are you saying if you show 0.999... is cauchy equivalent to 1, that shows they are in the same equivalence class. then that means they share properties of multiplicative identity? So you like show they are of a particular equivalence class within the whole of R rather than just living inside R?
Sorry if its a stupid question this is all new š
No thatās not a stupid question at all, thatās precisely what I mean, so yes that would in particular mean they represent the same real number
I understand itās a lot
The way we see R as a set of numbers is a useful way of describing them, the structure is the same as the collection of all Cauchy classes
Theyāre different objects
But behave in the same way
Wait isn't that really useful tho like u can say even more about two numbers than just living in R
U can say they behave same way no?
If I understand correctly šš
So are like different subsets of R categorised by different cauchy classes?
So if we want to show something rigorously about real numbers, say that two representations of a real number is the āsameā, then we have to use the more complicated object (the collection of Cauchy classes)
But if we just want to show properties about real numbers then we can forget about the small details and use properties weāve shown using the complicated model and just treat the classes as numbers as how we would usually do
But the latter model here is not detailed enough to show if say two representatives of a real number is the same, makes sense?
The latter model only shows they satisfy some properties of R, but cauchy classes shows that the numbers are equivalent ? Idk
Sorry im slow šš
Donāt worry, youāre doing very well; Iām honestly a bit surprised this is digestible.
Let me maybe create a concrete example
You don't have to teach me the whole concept dww š
Okay, well the main point Iām trying convey is that the construction of the real numbers gives an object that behaves the same way weād expect our intuitive notion of real numbers to behave.
So once weāve shown enough properties about them using the complicated model, then we can sort of forget that say the real number 3, is āthe class of rational Cauchy sequences whose difference to the constant sequence (3,3,ā¦.) converges to 0ā and instead treat it with respect to the structure of the real numbers, abstracting away stuff about Cauchy sequences etc. and focusing on the behaviour instead.
Now this isnāt anything new really, R is just built upon Q, where we did the same for Q.
Q is also constructed from equivalence classes, but upon Z (or N depending on how u do it)
In short:
When you want to show stuff about representations of real numbers, ur best bet is to go back to the construction.
When you want to show stuff about properties of real numbers, ur best bet is to forget about Cauchy sequences and use the properties that have already been proven.
Notice that the question, 0.9999⦠= 1? doesnāt fit within the second one
Ok i think this answers my question thx
Yeah i see now
Iām sorry for the lecture 
Better to do construction than properties in this particular case basically
Yeah
Also this question isnāt even necessarily true for other number systems that ācontain Rā
Like hyperreals for example
Oh okay cool
i think thats the easiest way to prove this
āļø
but floor(0.9999999...)=0
floor(1)=1
nope, floor(0.9999...) = 1
Floor(0.999)=0 floor(0.999...)=floor(1)=1 . The ellipsis means that it's infinite series which happens to converge to 1 if you check it.