#(RESOLVED) Algebra help: decomposition of finite abelian groups

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burnt sigil
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I have been trying this problem for a bit now, and it seems incredibly obvious, but I am not sure how to formalize it. All of the proofs I've seen online use log_p logarithms which seems overkill, plus we haven't covered that in class.
For reference, (1c) is showing that Hom(Z/n, Z/m) \cong Z/d.

timber lavaBOT
hazy falcon
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Just put the fries in the bag bro

severe sparrow
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i think you can make it work for groups give me a second

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Start by thinking about a homomorphism from Z_n to Z_m with \phi(1)=a, and \phi(0)=\phi(n)=n\phi(1)=na=0

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wait nvm ๐Ÿ˜ญ that doesnt work still

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i think any proofs of this for groups is going to be a bit involved, i dont think i can do it

snow wyvern
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U need to put an application

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Then show it that is a morphisme first

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After u need to prove that ker(z/n,Z/m)={0}

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So it's injectif

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And for surjection is obv no need for proof

burnt sigil
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two of y'all are dumb af ๐Ÿ™

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thanks to the one person who tried ๐Ÿ™

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i figured it out also so the question is resolved

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(RESOLVED) Algebra help: decomposition of finite abelian groups

brisk hound
burnt sigil
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.solved

timber lavaBOT
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Solved

Post marked as solved by @burnt sigil.

Use .unsolved if this was a mistake.