#Set theory or something
270 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
$(0, ,1)\overset{x\to 2x}{\cong}(0, ,2)$
but for your statement you just need bijectivity of the function
filippo
is that what I wrote? I'm not sure what the equal symbol is in the middle
does that mean that the function is only 1-1?
I usually know what things mean in english, but I've heard most of these terms for the first time and i dont know how to translate them
if there is a 1-1 function between two sets, they have the same cardinality
you wrote the conditions for certain types of isomorphicity
so i wrote that (0,1) and (0,2) are isomorphic as regions of metric spaces
I know of three kinds of functions. is the one you referring to, the one where you can fill one set with the other set's members, but repetition is allowed?
1-1, repetition isn't allowed
So if we use a 1-1 function we must prove that the right side fits perfectly in the left and other way around, right?
yes
but we do the opposite, we use 1-1 functions to prove that LHS fits into RHS and viceversa
if you can invert the function s.t. the domain of the inverse is the LHS, then the function is 1-1
I dont know how to do that. the picture of the function x-->2x is quite hazy to me
Not just one to one. A "bijection" is the term you are looking for
What does bijective mean?
1-1
No
An injection is one to one
A bijection is both an injection and a surjection
1-1 is referred to the range, not the codomain
so its 1-1 with repetition allowed, right?
no
That's a contradictory statement
lol so 1-1 without repetition?
But that's vague. That's why it's better to call it a bijection
i guess it depends on the national conventions
That's redundant. That's what 1-1 means
what do we have left then?
Go to Wikipedia and search for injective function and surjective function
A bijection is both
surjectivity, but it depends on conventions
y'all are talking different languages
but idk either of them so I'll educate myself to the basics before asking again
it's just that 1-1 isn't formally used, so it's ambiguously used
ohhhhhh bijection means it is 1-1 and fits fully, right?
so how do we prove that x-->2x is bijective?
.
You need to specify a domain and codomain first. They should be your two sets in question
note that my 1-1 is your bijective
I am not educated enough to understand what you said there lol
How do we do that?
i got confused
maybe (0,1) and (0,2)?
respectively
yes
okay and now what do we do?
can you invert x->2x ?
I have no idea what the criteria for it would be. Probably that they both can span R, but not sure
wait that wouldnt make sense
you know what the compositional inverse of a function is?
Maybe I saw it today but I forgot
you know what function composition is?
The high school definition, yes
$f\colon X\to Y$ is bijective $\iff\ \ \exists f^{-1}\colon Y\to X$ s.t. $\ f\circ f^{-1}=\mathrm{id}{X}\ f^{-1}\circ f=\mathrm{id}{Y}$
I understand what this means
filippo
not anymore
f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
(without domain reference)
sure
that means that X has a one by one correspondence with Y and vice versa in other words
wait thats what this means?
f(x)=2x, f^{-1}(x)=?
we can just do that?
yes
now, the domain of that function contains (0,2)
I don't see how
why cant we say that about x-->2x?
f(x)=x/2 is not the function, the function is f
you can, but then (0,2) wouldn't be the range of f
so we are converting (0,2) into (0,1)? If yes, I dont see how we achieved that
f(x)=x/2 is just the underlying analytical expression of f, together with a domain and a codomain you get a function
so the inverse of the function x-->2x is x-->x/2, right?
yes, we achieved that because as the definition of the inverse function says, the codomain of f^{-1} (also the range because of bijectivity) is X
I can see that actually. the function is (0,1)-->(0,2) and the inverse is (0,2)-->(0,1)
and if the analytical expression can be inverted on all Y, then the domain is Y, so the expression together with the domain and codomain is indeed the inverse
i'll give you an exercise, prove |[0,1)|=|(0,2)|
I see. I had no idea that we were talking about our everyday functions so thats really cool
Isnt that what we just did
look at the brackets
ohhhh
damn okay
so now we have what we had earlier, plus one term
maybe we do f: x+1-->2x ?
it makes sense in my brain
actually, choosing the domain wont be so sensical
honestly my brain has frozen
im sure its some trick
ughhhh I give up
Its my first time thinking of functions in this way
we want a function with domain [0,1) and range R
True
I see why
maybe then x-->x+1 with domain [0,1)?
but im rly not sure
that would mean that the range is [1,2) so no
I cannot think of one sorry
the idea of these functions is too fresh for me
hint, you don't need to construct the analytical expression, you just need a consistent pairing
well i think thats whats confusing me. the analytical expression really helped
so we want [0,1)-->(0,2)
we wanna prove that there is one more place for one member exactly so sit
one more place than in the case of (0,1)
I mean we have shown that (0,1) and (0,2) are essentially the same
so how about we find a function [0,1)-->(0,1)
there's a really clever proof, but first you need to prove a lemma
is it the diagonal thing?
filippo
prove it
n-->n+a?
I remember something similar
Actually idk if this is provable
nvm it is
but idk how
i suck at this
We can say that we added a discrete amount of numbers in N
bro do you remember all the llemmas
so the result is still numerable
are you tryna destroy my confidence lol
im struggling over here
no as in i understand the llemmas then move on (the llemmas i learn are pretty easy basic fundamentals)
but i couldn't imagine myself remembering them
as well
i'm making them up
n>0 -> n-1
0 -> 0,5
a piecewise function
I understand it logically, not mathematically
you basically added a place for 0.5 to sit in
yes
you can do it because there is a thing such that the next real number
you can't do it for reals
I can see why
but there is a different way to do it there
filippo
it's a bijection that makes $\lvert[0,1)\cup{n\in\mathbb{N}\mid n>2}\rvert=\lvert(0,2)\cup{n\in\mathbb{N}\mid n>2}\rvert$
This feels really weird
filippo
why?
first of all are there "<=>"s implied between the lines?
or at least =>
it's the piecewise definition of a function
as i did here
yeah it just confuses me to the point where im not sure what to ask
1.4?
1
no
3
Is it a function with three different thingies?
I see why its called piecewise
we start with 0, then we have all the real numbers between (0,1) with range (0,2) and then we take the rest of the naturals mapping to n+1
maybe I said it wrong but something like that
do you understand this?
no
You dont have to fully make me understand if you dont wanna. weve been here a long time
mb here it should be >1
and 0 to 2
and here too
$x\in (0,2)\to 2x\ x\in{n\in\mathbb{N}\mid n>1}\to x+1\ 0\to 3$
fijokazż
this?
maybe it is better to get intuition first
0 to 2
I agree. I am not supposed to be in that class thats why im struggling lol
search cardinal numbers on google
ohhh okeoke
$x\in (0,1)\to 2x\ x\in{n\in\mathbb{N}\mid n>1}\to x+1\ 0\to 2$
fijokazż
yes
cardinal numbers are numbers that obey algebraic rules induced by the set-operations composed with the map that sends a set to its cardinality
A lot of formalities but it kinda makes sense
cardinal numbers are much more intuitive to work with
the reason its called piecewise is because it picks up where the previous part left it at , right?
it's because the function has a set of overlined analytical expressions that has more than one element
that confused me further lol
im tryna construct the inverse of this but im not sure how
but it's more of a meta-mathematical concept, it can be formalized in more than a way
try to invert it piecewisely
so it would look kinda like
xE(0,2)-->x/2
xE{xEN | x>2}-->x-1
2-->0
domains go to ranges and vice versa
and how does this help?
we proved that the function has an inverse
which prolly means it is bijective
you wrote the domain of the inverse and it matched the codomain/range of the function
yes
well piecewisely we proved that
|(0,1)| = |(0,2)|
|{xEN | x>1}| = |{xEN | x>2}
and that 0 maps to 2 and 2 maps to 0
right?
I'm thinking about it
I can see how the first two are a union, because we have that if xE(0,1) we can match it with exactly one x' belonging in (0,2), and if xE{N|x>1} then blah blah
so we have that
|(0,1)U{x>1 xEN}| = |(0,2)U{x>2 xEN}|
wrote the natural things a little short
but I understand this far
Now I dont get how we can integrate the 0 and 2 thingy in here
$|A\cup B|=|A|+|B|$ if $|A|$ isn't finite
.
can you see how you can algebraically manipulate this now?
what does A+B even mean? if A and B are sets then the addition operator is pretty weird
filippo
i made a typo
I guess that we can add any term to our initial thingy and itd still be the same
i see its okay
use the identity to separate unions
because its a union we can choose to add one extra term from the naturals on the LHS but 0 extra on the RHS and itd result in [0,1) having the same numerability as (0,2), right?
ohhh we gotta use that
then prove |N| leq |[0,1)| and |N| leq |(0,2)|
|(0,1)U{x>1 xEN}| = |(0,2)U{x>2 xEN}| <=> |(0,1)| + |{xEN, x>1}|= |(0,2)| + |{xEN, x>2}|
yes
okay wait
what if
we take x=2 out of the first one
lol
and we add it in (0,1)
as 0
like embed it
actually nvm
idk how to do this step
prove that there is an injective function from N to the sets
btw there are obv simpler formal proofs but they involve the concept of limits
I dont know
1 -> 0.1
2 -> 0.11
3 -> 0.111
.
.
.
now, if |B| leq |A|, |B\cup A| leq 2|A|
If A is non finite
if it's finite you subtract a |A intersected B| so it's still true, but we are assuming |A| non finite
2|A|=|A cup A|=|A|
so we get |[0,1)| leq |(0,2)|, but |[0,1)|=|(0,1)|+1 =|(0,2)| +1 geq |[0,1)|
so |[0,1)|=|(0,2)|
we could have done it for B={0} but i wanted to give you more than an example to |A cup B|=|A|+|B|-|A intersected B|
there are other intuitive proofs but they don't use cardinal numbers, which i now think you would prefer
I dont get our example because we have an equality already, which means we will use "=>", if that makes sense. and it just confuses me idk
It's okay, youve helped me with a lot more than what I came here for
good luck with your course
I will learn how to understand this stuff eventually, i try not to force things like that in my mind because it gets messed up
