#Set theory or something

270 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

waxen sedge
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So in class our professor told us that the reason |(0,1)| equals |(0,2)| is because we can connect them through the epimorphic+monomorphic function x-->2x, or something similar. Can someone correct this statement? as I don't remember how the prof told it. Also, why is this (corrected version) statement true?

hidden obsidianBOT
noble sequoia
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$(0, ,1)\overset{x\to 2x}{\cong}(0, ,2)$

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but for your statement you just need bijectivity of the function

barren oracleBOT
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filippo

waxen sedge
waxen sedge
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I usually know what things mean in english, but I've heard most of these terms for the first time and i dont know how to translate them

noble sequoia
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if there is a 1-1 function between two sets, they have the same cardinality

noble sequoia
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so i wrote that (0,1) and (0,2) are isomorphic as regions of metric spaces

waxen sedge
noble sequoia
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1-1, repetition isn't allowed

waxen sedge
noble sequoia
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yes

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but we do the opposite, we use 1-1 functions to prove that LHS fits into RHS and viceversa

waxen sedge
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yes true. so, how do we prove this?

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i know its x-->2x but Im not sure what it means

noble sequoia
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if you can invert the function s.t. the domain of the inverse is the LHS, then the function is 1-1

waxen sedge
short brook
waxen sedge
noble sequoia
short brook
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An injection is one to one

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A bijection is both an injection and a surjection

noble sequoia
waxen sedge
noble sequoia
short brook
waxen sedge
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lol so 1-1 without repetition?

short brook
noble sequoia
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i guess it depends on the national conventions

short brook
waxen sedge
short brook
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Go to Wikipedia and search for injective function and surjective function

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A bijection is both

noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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y'all are talking different languages

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but idk either of them so I'll educate myself to the basics before asking again

noble sequoia
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it's just that 1-1 isn't formally used, so it's ambiguously used

waxen sedge
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ohhhhhh bijection means it is 1-1 and fits fully, right?

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so how do we prove that x-->2x is bijective?

short brook
noble sequoia
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note that my 1-1 is your bijective

waxen sedge
waxen sedge
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i got confused

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maybe (0,1) and (0,2)?

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respectively

noble sequoia
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yes

waxen sedge
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okay and now what do we do?

noble sequoia
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can you invert x->2x ?

waxen sedge
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wait that wouldnt make sense

noble sequoia
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you know what the compositional inverse of a function is?

waxen sedge
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Maybe I saw it today but I forgot

noble sequoia
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you know what function composition is?

waxen sedge
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The high school definition, yes

noble sequoia
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$f\colon X\to Y$ is bijective $\iff\ \ \exists f^{-1}\colon Y\to X$ s.t. $\ f\circ f^{-1}=\mathrm{id}{X}\ f^{-1}\circ f=\mathrm{id}{Y}$

waxen sedge
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I understand what this means

barren oracleBOT
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filippo

waxen sedge
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not anymore

noble sequoia
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f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
(without domain reference)

waxen sedge
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sure

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that means that X has a one by one correspondence with Y and vice versa in other words

noble sequoia
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yes

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now, what's the inverse of x->2x (hint, try to solve x=2y for y)

waxen sedge
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wait thats what this means?

noble sequoia
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f(x)=2x, f^{-1}(x)=?

waxen sedge
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f^(-1)(y) = x/2

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and we can change the thingies

noble sequoia
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x=y/2

waxen sedge
noble sequoia
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yes

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so we get f^{-1}(x)=x/2

waxen sedge
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yes

noble sequoia
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now, the domain of that function contains (0,2)

waxen sedge
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I don't see how

noble sequoia
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x->x/2 is defined on all R

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perhaps i used a slight abuse of notions

waxen sedge
noble sequoia
noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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so we are converting (0,2) into (0,1)? If yes, I dont see how we achieved that

noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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so the inverse of the function x-->2x is x-->x/2, right?

noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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I can see that actually. the function is (0,1)-->(0,2) and the inverse is (0,2)-->(0,1)

noble sequoia
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i'll give you an exercise, prove |[0,1)|=|(0,2)|

waxen sedge
waxen sedge
noble sequoia
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look at the brackets

waxen sedge
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ohhhh

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damn okay

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so now we have what we had earlier, plus one term

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maybe we do f: x+1-->2x ?

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it makes sense in my brain

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actually, choosing the domain wont be so sensical

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honestly my brain has frozen

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im sure its some trick

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ughhhh I give up

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Its my first time thinking of functions in this way

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we want a function with domain [0,1) and range R

noble sequoia
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codomain R

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the range should be (0,2)

waxen sedge
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True

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I see why

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maybe then x-->x+1 with domain [0,1)?

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but im rly not sure

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that would mean that the range is [1,2) so no

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I cannot think of one sorry

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the idea of these functions is too fresh for me

noble sequoia
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hint, you don't need to construct the analytical expression, you just need a consistent pairing

waxen sedge
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so we want [0,1)-->(0,2)

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we wanna prove that there is one more place for one member exactly so sit

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one more place than in the case of (0,1)

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I mean we have shown that (0,1) and (0,2) are essentially the same

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so how about we find a function [0,1)-->(0,1)

noble sequoia
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there's a really clever proof, but first you need to prove a lemma

waxen sedge
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is it the diagonal thing?

noble sequoia
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no

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$\lvert\mathbb{N}\rvert=\lvert\mathbb{N}\cup{0.5}\rvert$

barren oracleBOT
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filippo

noble sequoia
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prove it

waxen sedge
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n-->n+a?

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I remember something similar

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Actually idk if this is provable

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nvm it is

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but idk how

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i suck at this

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We can say that we added a discrete amount of numbers in N

foggy cape
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bro do you remember all the llemmas

waxen sedge
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so the result is still numerable

foggy cape
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cos i cant remember anything lol

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i just understand it

waxen sedge
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im struggling over here

foggy cape
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no as in i understand the llemmas then move on (the llemmas i learn are pretty easy basic fundamentals)

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but i couldn't imagine myself remembering them

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as well

noble sequoia
foggy cape
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💀

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bro too smart

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it takes me ages to understand some of these llemmas

noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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you basically added a place for 0.5 to sit in

noble sequoia
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yes

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you can do it because there is a thing such that the next real number

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you can't do it for reals

waxen sedge
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but there is a different way to do it there

noble sequoia
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exactly

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$x\in (0,1)\to 2x\ x\in{n\in\mathbb{N}\mid n>2}\to x+1\ 0\to 3$

barren oracleBOT
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filippo

noble sequoia
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it's a bijection that makes $\lvert[0,1)\cup{n\in\mathbb{N}\mid n>2}\rvert=\lvert(0,2)\cup{n\in\mathbb{N}\mid n>2}\rvert$

waxen sedge
barren oracleBOT
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filippo

noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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or at least =>

noble sequoia
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it's the piecewise definition of a function

noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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yeah it just confuses me to the point where im not sure what to ask

noble sequoia
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to understand better a function you plug in values

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what is 0.7 mapped to?

waxen sedge
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1.4?

noble sequoia
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yes

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where is 0 mapped?

waxen sedge
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1

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no

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3

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Is it a function with three different thingies?

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I see why its called piecewise

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we start with 0, then we have all the real numbers between (0,1) with range (0,2) and then we take the rest of the naturals mapping to n+1

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maybe I said it wrong but something like that

noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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You dont have to fully make me understand if you dont wanna. weve been here a long time

noble sequoia
noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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$x\in (0,2)\to 2x\ x\in{n\in\mathbb{N}\mid n>1}\to x+1\ 0\to 3$

barren oracleBOT
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fijokazż

waxen sedge
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this?

noble sequoia
noble sequoia
waxen sedge
noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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$x\in (0,1)\to 2x\ x\in{n\in\mathbb{N}\mid n>1}\to x+1\ 0\to 2$

barren oracleBOT
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fijokazż

noble sequoia
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yes

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cardinal numbers are numbers that obey algebraic rules induced by the set-operations composed with the map that sends a set to its cardinality

waxen sedge
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A lot of formalities but it kinda makes sense

noble sequoia
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cardinal numbers are much more intuitive to work with

waxen sedge
noble sequoia
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it's because the function has a set of overlined analytical expressions that has more than one element

waxen sedge
noble sequoia
noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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so it would look kinda like
xE(0,2)-->x/2
xE{xEN | x>2}-->x-1
2-->0

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domains go to ranges and vice versa

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and how does this help?

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we proved that the function has an inverse

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which prolly means it is bijective

noble sequoia
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you wrote the domain of the inverse and it matched the codomain/range of the function

waxen sedge
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yes

noble sequoia
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with >1

waxen sedge
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well piecewisely we proved that
|(0,1)| = |(0,2)|
|{xEN | x>1}| = |{xEN | x>2}
and that 0 maps to 2 and 2 maps to 0

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right?

noble sequoia
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yes

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can you see how this argument generalizes?

waxen sedge
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I'm thinking about it

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I can see how the first two are a union, because we have that if xE(0,1) we can match it with exactly one x' belonging in (0,2), and if xE{N|x>1} then blah blah

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so we have that
|(0,1)U{x>1 xEN}| = |(0,2)U{x>2 xEN}|

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wrote the natural things a little short

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but I understand this far

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Now I dont get how we can integrate the 0 and 2 thingy in here

noble sequoia
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$|A\cup B|=|A|+|B|$ if $|A|$ isn't finite

noble sequoia
waxen sedge
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what does A+B even mean? if A and B are sets then the addition operator is pretty weird

barren oracleBOT
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filippo

waxen sedge
waxen sedge
noble sequoia
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use the identity to separate unions

waxen sedge
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because its a union we can choose to add one extra term from the naturals on the LHS but 0 extra on the RHS and itd result in [0,1) having the same numerability as (0,2), right?

waxen sedge
noble sequoia
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then prove |N| leq |[0,1)| and |N| leq |(0,2)|

waxen sedge
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|(0,1)U{x>1 xEN}| = |(0,2)U{x>2 xEN}| <=> |(0,1)| + |{xEN, x>1}|= |(0,2)| + |{xEN, x>2}|

noble sequoia
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yes

waxen sedge
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okay wait

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what if

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we take x=2 out of the first one

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lol

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and we add it in (0,1)

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as 0

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like embed it

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actually nvm

waxen sedge
noble sequoia
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prove that there is an injective function from N to the sets

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btw there are obv simpler formal proofs but they involve the concept of limits

noble sequoia
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1 -> 0.1
2 -> 0.11
3 -> 0.111
.
.
.

waxen sedge
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thats enough to prove it?

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I mean it makes sense

noble sequoia
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now, if |B| leq |A|, |B\cup A| leq 2|A|

waxen sedge
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If A is non finite

noble sequoia
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if it's finite you subtract a |A intersected B| so it's still true, but we are assuming |A| non finite

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2|A|=|A cup A|=|A|

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so we get |[0,1)| leq |(0,2)|, but |[0,1)|=|(0,1)|+1 =|(0,2)| +1 geq |[0,1)|

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so |[0,1)|=|(0,2)|

waxen sedge
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lemme think abt it for a moment

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I think I lost you again, sorry

noble sequoia
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we could have done it for B={0} but i wanted to give you more than an example to |A cup B|=|A|+|B|-|A intersected B|

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there are other intuitive proofs but they don't use cardinal numbers, which i now think you would prefer

waxen sedge
waxen sedge
noble sequoia
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good luck with your course

waxen sedge
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I will learn how to understand this stuff eventually, i try not to force things like that in my mind because it gets messed up

waxen sedge
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.solved