#Calculus
88 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
I'm going to guess this translates to: show that, just because the derivative of a function exists at a point in its domain, that you can't say those limits exist
they want an example that prove that even if the two limits are equals it doesnt mean that the derivative of a function exisits at a point on its domain
Oh
any idea of an example?
Idk
Je me demande si il faudrait pas partir de la définition de la dérivée par la limite avec lim (f(a+dx)-f(a))/dx=f’(a)
Lorsque dx tend vers zéro.
Ofc u would use it
But they want an example of a function that proves this
I didnt take this in school yet so idk
yep
But we need an example
Exponential function
Didnt take this yet in school
Great, any function satisfying f'(x)=x/x
maybe overcomplicated but $f(x) = x \sin (\frac{1}{x^2})$ with $f(0) = 0$
bloubbloub
a is 0?
yes
hm actually it doesn't work for the reason you said
it has no limit at zero unfortunately
but what is it that they ask you written in English
.
@charred cypress idk if u can understand this but f'(x) exist
no because sinx/x goes to 1 when x goes to 0, but 1/x^2 goes to infinity
Exactly
So f'(×) exists
We dont want it to be derivative on a
huh
i dont understand
f'(×) goes to infinity
- infinity
whats wrong w my second line
you seem to write $\frac{\sin (1/x^2) }{1/x^2} \rightarrow 1$
bloubbloub
im sorry but 1/x^2 don't go to 0 asw ? when x -> + infty
x ---> 0
well that's what I'm trying to tell you: this doesn't work because 1/x^2 goes to infinity
whatever you do, sin(1/x^2) doesn't converge sooo...
yep yep
bloubbloub
What if f(x)= x if x=/0 and 1 if x=0
the two limits aint equal
shit
1 and -1
elaborate
But f(×) = x doesnt work 100%
Cuz f'(×) exist
well since f is not continuous you could just do that
The two limits are equal
Wait nvm it doesnt mean that its continuous
but for a continuous example I believe $f(x) = x^{1/3}$ also works
bloubbloub
I should be saying $f(x) = x^{1/3}$ if $x > 0$ and $f(x) = - (-x)^{1/3}$ otherwise
bloubbloub
$f(x) = \begin{cases} x^2 & \quad x<0 \ x^2 + 1 & \quad x \geq 0 \end{cases}$. For this function we have that $f'(x) = 2x$ is defined for every $x\neq 0$, and that $\lim_{x\to 0^{-}} 2x = \lim_{x\to 0^{+}} 2x = 0$. But the function $f$ can not be derivable on $x=0$ because $f$ is not continuous at 0.
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