why can’t x or y be 1 if (x-y)^2 is bigger than or equal to 0

[merry breach]

Like how does that answer the question I don’t get it bc the square just shows it will be positive but 1 is positive 😭 pls save me guys

[merry breach]

Ike how did rearranging that prove the question

[upper halo]

the final expression you landed at shows that $(x-y)^{2} \geq 0 \forall x,y \in \mathbb{R}$

[scenic gull]

Dhairya

[upper halo]

the starting equation can definetly be proved by using AM-GM inequalities

idts there is an alternate to it but still

let others look upon this

[merry breach]

I haven’t learnt that one sadly

Thanks sm for taking a look

[upper halo]

here input n=2 to get desired output

[quartz lintel]

why can't they?

x = 2
y = 1
(2 - 1)² = 1 >= 0

[thick stone]

i'm not sure what you are asking - what's wrong with x, y being one?

[brisk ice]

as long as |x-y|>=2 you can have any value

including 1