#confusion regarding tangent vector basis
40 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
majesty
i.e for the rest of the book Tu just explicitly makes the partial derivative basis of the derivation space the basis of the tangent space, instead of using the arbitrary $(e_1,\dots,e_n)$ basis
is this justified only given that isomorphism is proven?
well by definition a tangent vector is based on a derivative of another vector or graph
$(e_1,\dots,e_n)$
ashton_the_ghostly_nerd
i mean like
wouldnt $$\sum v^i \left. \frac{\partial}{\partial x^i} \right|_p$$ just be a representation of $v \in T_p\mathbb{R}^n$ or something
majesty
like the isomorphism allows for that but i dont get when it is justified to directly say $$\sum_i v^i \left. \frac{\partial}{\partial x^i} \right|_p \in T_p\mathbb{R}^n$$
majesty
since the partial derivative basis is the basis of the derivation space
not yk
the tangent space
even though theyre isomorphic
well if they're isomorphic doesn't a=b and b=c lead to the conclusion a=c?
but isomorphic jus means bijective tho (the map used for the proof is linear so a bijection should be sufficient)
like direct equality (=) isnt the same as isomorphism
man i shoulda taken a logic class
so we're basically running into the issue of "we know the conclusion is right but the reasoning is unclear or faulty"
kinda
is this for a class?
nah im self learning sumt
ah i see
what's the topic this is building up to?
bc this may be something that will make more sense if the big picture is made clear
well, diffgeo obv
im trying to do the maths up until doing integration on manifolds
probably
then id consider doing general relativity with this idk
well yeah but i guess i mean more "what conclusions are made that rely on this being true"
more datapoints in the train of thought could help us find a better reasoning for this step in the thought process
yeah id prolly do GR
black holes and shi feels cool