#feynman's technique or somethin
17 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
fijokazż
why do you have the bound with a as well?
haven't seen feynman's technique used with these but it's the same principle
here you use leibniz rule for differentiating an integral
$$
\begin{aligned}
I'(a)&=\frac{d}{da} \left[ \int_{u(a)}^{v(a)} f(a,x) dx \right] \
&= \frac{d}{da}(f(a,v(a)) - f(a,u(a))) + \int_{u(a)}^{v(a)} \frac{ \partial }{ \partial a } f(a,x)dx\
&= f(a,v(a))v'(a) -f(a,u(a))u'(a) + \int_{u(a)}^{v(a)} \frac{ \partial }{ \partial a } f(a,x)dx
\end{aligned}
$$
artemetra
in your case:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I'(a) &= \frac{\ln(a^2+1)}{a^2+1}\left(\frac{d}{da} a\right) - 0 + \int_{0}^{a} \frac{ \partial }{ \partial a } \frac{\ln(ax+1)}{a^2+1} dx\
&= \frac{\ln(a^2+1)}{a^2+1} +\int_{0}^{a} \frac{ \partial }{ \partial a } \frac{\ln(ax+1)}{a^2+1} dx\
&= \frac{\ln(a^2+1)}{a^2+1} + \int_0^a \frac{x}{(ax+1)(x^2+1)} dx
\end{aligned}
$$
artemetra
@sharp prawn
interesting. wouldnt we need to multiply them? why is it addition?
that's the general form for leibniz rule when your integral bounds have the variable you are differentiating w.r.t.
i didnt know that. i always thought we used the chain rule. thanks very much, that cleaned some things up
again i haven't seen feynman's technique used with integrals where the new variable is also in the bound so idk how useful this is for that but yeah this is the general form for differentiating the integral sign
it is just the chain rule really
.solved