Given two functions such that f(x)>0 and g(x)>0 for x in [a;b]. If $f(x_0)+g(x_0)\leq f(x)+g(x)$ then $\frac{1}{f(x_0)}+\frac{1}{g(x_0)}\geq \frac{1}{f(x)}+\frac{1}{g(x)}$. Is this Statement correct? If yes, how do I prove this
#Proof (?)
steep canyon
compact dawnBOT
native knollBOT
Tony
dusky island
Given two functions such that f(x)>0 and g(x)>0 for x in [a;b]. If $f(x_0)+g(x_0...
no, it's not correct.
f(x)=1+(x-1)^2
g(x)=1+(x+1)^2
say x0=0, and x=1.
grave lodge
I tried some examples, and it seems to work, if we choose x_0 = a, seemingly.
stable path
no, it's not correct.
f(x)=1+(x-1)^2
g(x)=1+(x+1)^2
say x0=0, and x=1.
!nosols
compact dawnBOT
no, it's not correct.
f(x)=1+(x-1)^2
g(x)=1+(x+1)^2
say x0=0, and x=1.
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.