#could someone help me with this integral?
93 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
could always use partial fractions if ur bothered
Partial fraction won’t tly work fr
why?
the other option is to complete the square
it seems
Cause they are both the same thing
if u have partial fractions u can just integrate each component separately cant u?
Yes…
But the denominator is the same
A/(x^2+x+1)+b/(x^2+x+1)
partial fractions
whoops, i was being silly
i forgot 1/(A+B) cant be turned into 1/C +1/D

u can get somethjing that looks like a trig thingy
after a usub
Ah
very pretty
The arc tan pray thing
1?
$\int \frac{dx}{x^2+x +1}$
axkyn
3/4 and 1/4
(X+1/2)^2
my favourite completing the square ahhaha
u need to take out all the fractions
$\int \frac{dx}{((x+\frac{1}{2})^2 \frac{3}{4}}$
take out a factor of half from the bracket -> 1/4 -? 16 outside
axkyn
My latex ass gimme a few
its okay i cant latex at all xd
also i think i will slepe
goood luck to tasakman95
cant you just calculate int(1/(x²+x+a))dx and then do leibniz rule?
thats not an easy integral either?
wellll
wait i dont understand how you could use leibniz here
d/da
but why would that make it easier
because this int(1/(x²+x+a))dx isnt that hard
but its fundamentally the same as the other
Can you make it a limit
The answer is no ; )
wdym?
An integral is not a limit
ik
$\int \frac{d!x}{((x+\frac{1}{2})^2+\frac{3}{4}}$
There was meant to be a plus
∫(∂∑)ω=∫(∑)dω
You can just do $x+\frac{1}{2}$=$\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\cos(u)$
∫(∂∑)ω=∫(∑)dω
Yes I know
It’s arc tan I thought
oh wait i am tripping
if it was smth like that i would have solved it but i dont know since it is to the seceond power
(sry for my english im from poland)
So $x+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\tan(u)$ and $d!x=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\sec^2ud!u$.
And then it becomes $\frac{8\sqrt{3}}{9}\int\frac{\sec^2ud!u}{\sec^4u}$
hopefully
∫(∂∑)ω=∫(∑)dω
and $\int\cos^2(u)d!u$
∫(∂∑)ω=∫(∑)dω
dont you just do u= x+ 1/2 and du=dx to make it int(1/(u²+((sqrt(3))/2))dx to then use int(1/(x²+a²)dx=1/a arctan(x/a) ?
+C ._.
its more of a int (1/(x^2+a^2))^2dx type of thing
just use leibniz to get that
Brute force it
ye