#This doesnt make sense
58 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
so my hypothesis
is that
as the angle increases
The force of friction must also increase
so that when taking moments
they are in equillibrium
but as the friction force can only be as big as mew R
there is a range
the reason why i kept on misunderstanding
was because you could cancel out the angles, giving you the lower bound of the angle
because we took
moments
at A
which absolved
us of the normal reaction
so thats why we got the lower bound
taking moments at any other points other than A would give us an bigger angle
actually
i get it now
The frictional force = normal reaction force
so it does nothing when we take moments, i.e it cancels out
if the frcitional force is bigger than 2.5, (second last line) then that will be impossible
yeah, if you think in reality, a ladder can not only stand at some specific angle without slipping
theres a range of angles
it doesnt make sense though
the frictional forces will always be the same at any angle
its insinuating that Reaction force somehow changes?
it literally just doesnt make sense
i think
contextually
maybe if the mass changes
the angle woul dchange
still wouldnt make sense
you kinda get what i mean?
no
i am assuming it is at fmax
when actually the friction has a range of values
and the value of friction
it is determined by what it needs to be to balance the moments
damn
@zinc quarry what do you think
it happens that for some angles
the value of friction needed will surpass the fricition of coefficient times the normal reaction force
yes thats it
how did i not think of this sooner
complete tunnel vision
so easy to assume when given values smh
in retrospect
why was i even using
Fmax
im so angry
ok whatever#
.solved
Post marked as solved by @sick wind.
Use .unsolved if this was a mistake.