#dot product on differentials
11 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
Why is $\frac{dv}{dt} \cdot dr $= $dv \cdot \frac{dr}{dt}$
fosur
I can only see this being true if u treat dt as a scalar
yeah this is some absurd notation stuff
leibniz notation says that differentials can be used as algebraic terms
@blazing vault can you elaborate? This does not look like it suitable to perform dot product on
this just looks like multiplication