#Is reverse “induction” a valid proof method?

13 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

mystic kelp
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I see no reason why would this not be true.
Suppose that

  1. $P(0)$ is true.
  2. If $P(k)$ is true, then $P(k-1)$ is true for $k ≤ 0, \in \mathbb{Z} $.
    Therefore, $P(n)$ is true for all $n \in \mathbb{Z}$ s.t. $n ≤ 0$.
neon gustBOT
modest capeBOT
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number theorist
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mystic kelp
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wow what a quick response

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I don't normally expect quick responses

lucid sparrow
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Oh, I thought he wanted to pick e.g. k = 10, then go back to 0

lucid sparrow
mystic kelp
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Should i ask number theory proof questions here, in #elementary-number-theory or the help channels?

lucid sparrow
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I'd say the help channels are sometimes more active than #elementary-number-theory and you should be allowed to ask in both, so I'd go with the channels

mystic kelp
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ok thanks

mystic kelp
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.close